We would have the following sample space:
(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4)
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4)
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4)
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4)
Those give us these sums:
2, 3, 4, 5
3, 4, 5, 6
4, 5, 6, 7
5, 6, 7, 8
P(sum of 2) = 1/16 =0.0625
P(sum of 3) = 2/16 = 0.125
P(sum of 4) = 3/16 = 0.1875
P(sum of 5) = 4/16 = 0.25
P(sum of 6) = 3/16 = 0.1875
P(sum of 7) = 2/16 = 0.125
P(sum of 8) = 1/16 = 0.0625
Answer:
4, because x= 4 is the maximum value taken by x.
Step-by-step explanation:
When you first pick a ticket, there are 2 winning tickets and 40 total tickets. This means that there is a 2/40 chance of your ticket being a winning one. This fraction can be reduced to 1/20.
After this, there will be 1 winning ticket left and 39 total tickets. There is a 1/39 chance of the next ticket being a winning one. We multiply these two fractions together to get our answer. 1/20 * 1/39 = 1/780, so there is a 1/780 chance of having 2 winning tickets.
Answer:
C. 0
Step-by-step explanation:
–4j^2 + 3j – 28 = 0
The discriminant is b^2-4ac if >0 we have 2 real solutions
=0 we have 1 real solutions
<0 we have 2 imaginary solutions
a = -4, b =3 c = -28
b^2 -4ac
(3)^2 - 4(-4)*(-28)
9 - 16(28)
9 -448
This will be negative so we have two imaginary solutions.
Therefore we have 0 real solutions
Answer:
Your Picture is just of -3????
Step-by-step explanation:
