Answer:
The answer is given as below;
Explanation:
Opening inventory $8,000
Purchases $96,000
Less: return outwards ($6,200)
Add; Freight in $1,100
Less: Closing Inventory ($17,300)
Cost of Goods Sold $81,600
Answer:
According to studies of human decision-making, the most likely is:
c. After reading the article, all members of the group oppose capital punishment.
Explanation:
The article, provided for reading by supporters and opposers, will likely sway the 40% of the group, who are initially supportive of capital punishment, to now oppose capital punishment,especially if the article critically opposes capital punishment. There is no way majority of the group will support capital punishment. Therefore, options a and b are incorrect. For option d, after reading the article, the opinions of some opposers and supporters may shift either way. They will not remain the same as before. This rules out option d, leaving only option c as the correct option.
I believe that the answer to the question provided above is <span>worldcom try to structure the transactions to get a “step-up” in the tax bases of mci’s assets because he doesn't have enough influence to do so.</span>
Hope my answer would be a great help for you. If you have more questions feel free to ask here at Brainly.
Answer:
---------------------- - -------------------------------
Factory Payroll 21030
Cash 21030
---------------------- - -------------------------------
Goods in process 16200
Factory Overhead 4830
Factory Payroll 21030
---------------------- - -------------------------------
Explanation: The payment of the total labor factory costs must be recorded, we debit the "Factory payroll" cost account and credit the "cash" account as they were paid in cash.
Then we must allocate these costs to the production process, therefore we debit the "goods in process" account for the amount of <u>direct labor</u> consumed, and "factory overhead" for the amount of <u>indirect labor </u>consumed, and finally credit the account " Factory payroll " for the total.
Answer:
Step 1:
Start by setting it up with the divisor 20 on the left side and the dividend 16 on the right side like this:
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 2:
The divisor (20) goes into the first digit of the dividend (1), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 3:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
0
Step 4:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (1 - 0 = 1) and write the answer below.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1
Step 5:
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (6) like this:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 6:
The divisor (20) goes into the bottom number (16), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 7:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
0
Step 8:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (16 - 0 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
- 0
1 6
You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.
The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.
Therefore, the answer to 16 divided by 20 calculated using Long Division is:
0
16 Remainder
Explanation:
