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Triss [41]
2 years ago
15

Miriam works more than 40 hours a week.

Mathematics
2 answers:
slava [35]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The solutions of the inequality include all numbers <u>greater than 40</u>

There are <u>an infinite number of</u> solutions of the inequality.

Dmitriy789 [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The solutions of the inequality include all numbers greater than 40.  

There are an infinite number of the inequality.

Step-by-step explanation:

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There are 10 cards. Each card has one number between 1 and 10, so that every number from 1 to 10 appears once.
pychu [463]

Answer:

When a card is chosen at random with replacement five times, X is the number of times a prime number is chosen.          Here the card is chosen with replacement.  This implies probability for choosing a prime number remains the same as the previously drawn card is replaced.

The sample space= {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}

Prime numbers = {2,3,5,7}

Prob for drawing prime number = 4/10 = 0.4

is the same when replacement is done.

Also there are two outcomes either prime or non prime.  Hence in this case, X the no of times a prime number is chosen, is binomial with p =0.4 and q = 0.6 and n=5


When a card is chosen at random without replacement three times, X is the number of times an even number is chosen.

Prob for an even number = 0.5

But after one card drawn say odd number next card has prob for even number as 5/9 hence each draw is not independent of the other.  Hence not binomial.

When a card is chosen at random with replacement six times, X is the number of times a 3 is chosen.

Here since every time replacement is done, probability of drawing a 3 remains constant = 1/10 = 0.3

i.e. each draw is independent of the other and there are only two outcomes , 3 or non 3. Hence here X is binomial.

When a card is chosen at random with replacement multiple times, X is the number of times a card is chosen until a 5 is chosen

Here X is the number of times a card is chosen with replacement till 5 is chosen.  This is not binomial.  Here probability for drawing nth time correct 5 is  P(non 5 in the first n-1 draws)*P(5 in nth draw) = 0.1^(n-1) (0.9)

Because nCr is not appearing i.e. 5 cannot appear in any order but only in the last draw, this is not binomial.

Step-by-step explanation:


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