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Rufina [12.5K]
4 years ago
9

How is a serf different from a slave?

History
2 answers:
Artyom0805 [142]4 years ago
8 0
A lord of the manor could not sell his serfs<span> as a Roman might sell his </span>slaves<span>. On the other hand, if he chose to dispose of a parcel of land, the </span>serfs<span> associated with that land stayed with it to serve their new lord; simply speaking, they were implicitly sold in mass and as a part of a lot.</span>
zmey [24]4 years ago
5 0
The difference is that the serf is tied to the property meaning he was the lowest form of tenant of the land his rights if any were the rights vested in the land itself and slaves are tied to the owner meaning they are chattel -(discretionary disposable property) owned personally by the owner.
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The party was strongest in the South and weakest in the Northeast. It demanded states' rights as expressed by the "Principles of 1798" articulated in the Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions that would allow states to nullify a federal law.[3] Above all, the party stood for the primacy of the yeoman farmers. Republicans were deeply committed to the principles of republicanism, which they feared were threatened by the supposed monarchical tendencies of the Hamiltonian Federalists. The party came to power in 1801 with the election of Jefferson in the 1800 presidential election. The Federalists—too elitist to appeal to most people—faded away, and totally collapsed after 1815. The Republicans dominated the First Party System, despite internal divisions, until partisanship itself withered away during the Era of Good Feelings after 1816.

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