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Rufina [12.5K]
3 years ago
9

How is a serf different from a slave?

History
2 answers:
Artyom0805 [142]3 years ago
8 0
A lord of the manor could not sell his serfs<span> as a Roman might sell his </span>slaves<span>. On the other hand, if he chose to dispose of a parcel of land, the </span>serfs<span> associated with that land stayed with it to serve their new lord; simply speaking, they were implicitly sold in mass and as a part of a lot.</span>
zmey [24]3 years ago
5 0
The difference is that the serf is tied to the property meaning he was the lowest form of tenant of the land his rights if any were the rights vested in the land itself and slaves are tied to the owner meaning they are chattel -(discretionary disposable property) owned personally by the owner.
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As time went on and the abuses of these mother nations went on, those who were ruled over decided to band together as a common ethnic group with the same goal of getting rid of their rulers and unifying their split up groups. This resulted in the unification of people, an independent nation, as well as the removal of foreign powers within that nation.

Examples include the various revolutions throughout the west: the American, French, Haitian, and Latin American revolutions, as well as the revolutions throughout Africa: the revolutions in Algeria, Angola, and Ghana.

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nexus9112 [7]

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<h3>In the turmoil surrounding the unpopular Vietnam War, lowering the national voting age became a controversial topic. Responding to arguments that those old enough to be drafted for military service, should be able to exercise the right to vote, Congress lowered the voting age as part of the Voting Rights Act of 1970.Jul 1, 1971 </h3>
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Caesar proposed legislation for reform of government, opposing Optimate sentiment, and a redistribution of land to the poor, both long-held Populare goals. His initiatives were supported by Crassus' wealth and Pompey's soldiers, thus solidly aligning The First Triumvirate with the Populare faction.

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