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Margaret [11]
3 years ago
9

(a) has no solutions.(b) has infinitely many solutions.(c) has exactly one solution.

Mathematics
1 answer:
grandymaker [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

Given

ax + by = c

qx + ry = s

(a) the equation has no solutions if a/q = b/r ≠ c/s, when this happens, we say the system of equations has no solution. For example

x + y = 3

x + y = 5

Subtracting first equation from the second we have:

0 = 2 which is impossible.

(b) the equations have infinite solutions if a/q = b/r = c/s, for example

x + y = 2

x + y = 2

Subtracting the first equation from the second we have

0 = 0, since this is always true, then it has infinite solutions.

(c) the equations have unique solutions if a/q ≠ b/r, for example

x + y = 2

x – y = 1

Adding the first and second equation we have

2x = 3, we can get x from here and definitely y, so we have just one solution.

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A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two
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Answer:

the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven that:

A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.

Let consider β to be the average value for defecting

So;

β = 2

Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.

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the probability mass function can be represented as follows:

\mathtt{P(y) = \dfrac{e^{- \beta} \ \beta^ \ y}{y!}}

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Hence,  the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel

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\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{e^{- 2} \ 2^ \ 0}{0!}}

\mathtt{P(y =0) = \dfrac{0.1353  \times 1}{1}}

P(y =0) = 0.1353

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