Mexico at first did not allow the people of Texas to own slaves. After winning independence and however, Texas allowed slavery. Once slavery was allowed, after a few years of independence, texas asked to enter the US as a slave state.
So Texas went from a territory of Mexico that had slavery banned to a state in the US with slavery (after independence)
hope this helps
Answer: Senator Stephen Douglas proposed the bill that became the Kansas-Nebraska Act as a way of getting southern support for Nebraska statehood. Douglas was seeking to bring Nebraska into the Union in order to bring those lands under government authority and lay the groundwork for building a Midwestern route of transcontinental railroad that would run to Chicago and benefit his state (Illinois). The compromise to gain support from the South was to create two states, Nebraska and Kansas, and allow voters in those areas to choose whether they'd be slave or free. The thought was that Kansas might end up as a slave state and Nebraska as a free state, thus maintaining the balance between free and slave states.
Further detail:
The Kansas-Nebraska Act was enacted by Congress in 1854. It granted popular sovereignty to the people in the Kansas and Nebraska territories, letting them decide whether they'd allow slavery. In essence, this made the Kansas-Nebraska act a repeal of the Missouri Compromise of 1820, which had said there would be no slavery north of latitude 36°30´ except for Missouri.
After the passage of the Kansas-Nebraska Act, pro-slavery and anti-slavery settlers rushed into Kansas to try to sway the outcome of the issue, and violence between the two sides occurred. The term "bleeding Kansas" was used because of the bloodshed. Kansas and Nebraska ended up as free states, but the Kansas-Nebraska Act had allowed the possibility that slavery could become slave states.
Answer: The Treaty of Versailles was signed on June 28, 1919, and officially ended the war between Germany and the Allied Powers.
The controversial War Guilt clause blamed Germany for World War I and imposed heavy debt payments on Germany.
The Treaty of Versailles was a major contributing factor in the outbreak of the Second World War.
Explanation:
Its not everything but its some!! Also I'm doing this in In School Suspension
Invasions by Barbarian tribes. ...
Economic troubles and overreliance on slave labor. ...
The rise of the Eastern Empire. ...
The most important reason for the collapse of Rome was the failure to actually integrate what they conquered. When Roman soldiers conquered new lands, it was rare that they ever attempted to force their culture, ideals, or laws upon the natives and barbarians. Thus, when the Empire began suffering internal struggles, the natives they had conquered decided to take action, which lead to the swift collapse by barbarian invasion from all sides. It's hard to pick a LEAST important reason, seeing that there were many of them, but I suppose a contender would most likely be the common refusal of the Empire to even acknowledge that barbarians were rising. On the outer edges of their territory, in places like Gaul and Morocco, the Roman government was reluctant to even recognize the threat of the barbarians, thinking that even accepting that these barbarians were causing trouble would weaken their prestige in the public eye.
"<span>b. Most African American sharecroppers ended each year owing money to the landlord, thus preventing them from leaving the land" is the best answer from the list. </span>
