Since <em>X</em> follows a binomial distribution, its mean and variance are
<em>np</em> = 3
<em>np</em> (1 - <em>p</em>) = 2
Substitute <em>np</em> = 3 in to the second equation to solve for <em>p</em> :
3 (1 - <em>p</em>) = 2
1 - <em>p</em> = 2/3
<em>p</em> = 1/3
Solve for <em>n</em> :
<em>n</em> (1/3) = 3
<em>n</em> = 9
Answer:
f(x)=X^2+4
f(x)=42
42=X^2+4
X^2+4=42
X^2=42-4
X^2=38
X=sqrt(38)=6.16
2 of them are perfect numbers and they are 6 and 28
Step-by-step explanation:
because they are one of the first 5 perfect numbers!
Hope this helps :)
