Answer:
The answer is $61,000
Explanation:
An impairment loss is recognized when the carrying amount of an asset is less than its fair value(prevailing market price).
The difference between the carrying value and fair value is written off. Carrying amount is the cost of acquiring an asset minus any subsequent depreciation and impairment charges.
Impairment Loss = Book Value – Market Value
Impairment Loss = $177,500 - $116,500
Impairment loss is $61,000
Answer:
most
little
risk taking
regardless of
Explanation:
The FDIC insures the deposits of depositors.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) was established after the great depression. Bank run was attributed to be one of the causes of the great depression. The FDIC increases confidence of depositors in banks because they insure the deposit of bank customers. In the case a bank fails, customers are assured that they would not lose their monies deposited
Because banks knows that the deposit of customers are insured, it increases their risk taking. this is known as adverse selection
Answer:
Current yield = <u>Annual coupon</u>
Current market price
Current yield = <u>$75</u>
$1,020
Current yield = 0.0735 = 7.35%
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Current yield equals annual coupon divided by the current market price of the bond.
There is 1000 tickets and you have one so you have 1 in a 1000 chance
Answer: 0.70; 0.30
Explanation:
Marginal propensity to consume(MPC) is the additional spending by an economic agent due to a rise in income while the marginal propensity to save is the additional saving by someone due to rise in income.
Increase in income = $3,000
Increase in spending = $2,100
Increase in savings = $3,000 - $2,100 = $900
MPC = $2,100/$3,000
= 0.70
MPS = $900/$3,000
= 0.30
