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Leokris [45]
3 years ago
9

Chegg Discuss why stress-strain behavior of material is critical than just the ultimate strength of the material. What propertie

s does pre-peak and post-peak behavior represent
Engineering
1 answer:
DanielleElmas [232]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Throughout the clarification section elsewhere here, the definition of the concern is mentioned.

Explanation:

  • The stress-strain curve provides designers with a long list of critical parameters that are needed for utility development. Including capacity, longevity, elasticity, apparent viscosity, tension electricity, resilience, as well as flexural strength, a load-pressure assignment gave us several mechanical households at a certain point of operation. It also assists in manufacturing.
  • During which the overarching force can inform us about the maximum energy either workload the substance will experience, which could also be inferred within the action of the stress-strain. The dynamic properties can be seen by pre maximum activity because it will be before even the maximum yield intensity as well as the posted maximum would display plastic behavior however after the peak becomes achieved, the natural frequencies continue to decline.
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A 4-L pressure cooker has an operating pressure of 175 kPa. Initially, one-half of the volume is filled with liquid and the othe
vodomira [7]

Answer:

the highest rate of heat transfer allowed is 0.9306 kW

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

Volume = 4L = 0.004 m³

V_f = V_g = 0.002 m³

Using Table ( saturated water - pressure table);

at pressure p = 175 kPa;

v_f = 0.001057 m³/kg

v_g = 1.0037 m³/kg

u_f = 486.82 kJ/kg

u_g 2524.5 kJ/kg

h_g = 2700.2 kJ/kg

So the initial mass of the water;

m₁ = V_f/v_f + V_g/v_g

we substitute

m₁ = 0.002/0.001057  + 0.002/1.0037

m₁ = 1.89414 kg

Now, the final mass will be;

m₂ = V/v_g

m₂ = 0.004 / 1.0037

m₂ = 0.003985 kg

Now, mass leaving the pressure cooker is;

m_{out = m₁ - m₂

m_{out = 1.89414  - 0.003985

m_{out = 1.890155 kg

so, Initial internal energy will be;

U₁ = m_fu_f + m_gu_g

U₁ = (V_f/v_f)u_f  + (V_g/v_g)u_g

we substitute

U₁ = (0.002/0.001057)(486.82)  + (0.002/1.0037)(2524.5)

U₁ = 921.135288 + 5.030387

U₁ = 926.165675 kJ

Now, using Energy balance;

E_{in -  E_{out = ΔE_{sys

QΔt - m_{outh_{out = m₂u₂ - U₁

QΔt - m_{outh_g = m₂u_g - U₁

given that time = 75 min = 75 × 60s = 4500 sec

so we substitute

Q(4500) - ( 1.890155 × 2700.2 ) = ( 0.003985 × 2524.5 ) - 926.165675

Q(4500) - 5103.7965 = 10.06013 - 926.165675

Q(4500) = 10.06013 - 926.165675 + 5103.7965

Q(4500) = 4187.690955

Q = 4187.690955 / 4500

Q = 0.9306 kW

Therefore, the highest rate of heat transfer allowed is 0.9306 kW

5 0
3 years ago
The mass fractions of total ferrite and total cementite in an iron–carbon alloy are 0.91 and 0.09, respectively. Is this a hypoe
WINSTONCH [101]

Answer:

hypoeutectoid

Explanation:

ferrite:  pure form of iron

cementite: It is iron carbide with 93.3% iron and 6.67% carbon

hypoeutectoid: Eutectoid steel with carbon fraction less than 0.8%

hypereutectoid: Eutectoid Steel with carbon content more than 0.8%

For the mentioned iron-carbide alloy,

% of carbon in iron-carbide alloy= percentage of cementite × percentage of carbon in cementite

% of carbon in iron-carbide alloy= 0.09× 0.0667

                                                     = 0.6%

so the alloy is hypoeutectoid

4 0
4 years ago
a ten station assembly machine has ideal cycle time of 6 sec. the fraction defect rate at each station 0.005 and defect always j
MAXImum [283]

Answer:

T_{P}=(2.6667)(10^{-3})h

Explanation:

Let's write the equation of the production rate for the assembly machine :

T_{P}=T_{C}+(n).(m).(p).(T_{D})

Where T_{P} is the production rate for the assembly machine.

Where T_{C} is the ideal cycle time

Where n is the number of stations.

Where m is the number stations that get jam when the defect occurs.

Where p is the defect rate at each station.

And where T_{D} is the average downtime per breakdown

We are looking for the hourly production rate ⇒

1h=60min\\1min=60s ⇒

1h=3600s ⇒

6s=\frac{(6s)(1h)}{(3600s)}= \frac{1}{600}h

60min=1h ⇒

1.2min=\frac{(1.2min)(1h)}{(60min)}=0.02h

T_{P}=\frac{1}{600}h+(10)(1.0)(0.005)(0.02h)=\frac{1}{375}h=(2.6667)(10^{-3})h

m = 1.0 in the equation.

3 0
3 years ago
Technician A says that the mainline pressure is usually higher in manual first gear than it is when the gear selector is in the
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

Technician A & B

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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STatiana [176]

Answer:

Explanatiowfpnofn:

8 0
3 years ago
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