All categories

3 years ago

Please help me!!! I will give Brainliest!

Mathematics

1 answer:

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

if the boys go in front and the girls go in the back there is only one way to put them

You might be interested in

Select the best answer for the question.

Marat540 [252]

The answer of this question is 42

3 0

4 years ago

What is the discounted price for a watch that is regularly $58.00 and 30% off?

lukranit [14]

Answer:

$40.60

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

2 5 ÷ 6 7 Give your answer as a fraction in its simplest form.

Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

2.68

Step-by-step explanation:

25/67 = 2.68

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose that the probability that a customer plans to make a purchase is 0.32. Suppose that the probability of responding to an

Elanso [62]

Answer:

0.6495

Step-by-step explanation:

This is question based on conditional probability

The probability that a customer plans to make a purchase = 0.32.

The probability that a customer plans not to make a purchase = 1 - 0.32

= 0.68

The probability of responding to an advertisement given that the customer plans to make a purchase = 0.63

The probability of responding to an advertisement given that a person does not plan to make a purchase = 0.16.

Given that a person responds to the advertisement, what is the probability that they plan to make a purchase is calculated as:

0.32 × 0.63/(0.32 × 0.63) + (0.16 × 0.68)

= 0.2016/ 0.2016 + 0.1088

= 0.2016/0.3104

= 0.6494845361

Approximately = 0.6495

8 0

3 years ago

Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex

allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

$P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}$

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have $\frac{50}{6}$ number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers