Answer:
4 in
Step-by-step explanation:
given the scale is 1 in : 36 ft , then
length of drawing = 144 ft ÷ 36 = 4 in
Answer:
![1\frac{5}{9}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1%5Cfrac%7B5%7D%7B9%7D)
Step-by-step explanation:
This is the answer because:
1) Reduce the expression, if possible, by cancelling the common factors.
2) You can also find the reciprocal of 1 1/2 = 3/2 while dividing the expression:
1. Convert both fractions into improper fractions:
![2\frac{1}{3} = \frac{7}{3}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=2%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B7%7D%7B3%7D)
![1\frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B3%7D%7B2%7D)
2. Divide both fractions:
÷
=
x
=
= ![1\frac{5}{9}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1%5Cfrac%7B5%7D%7B9%7D)
Therefore, the answer is ![1\frac{5}{9}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=1%5Cfrac%7B5%7D%7B9%7D)
Hope this helps! :D
Answer: The answer should be -0.5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
= x²(-3 +5) +y²(2 -3) +5xy -2y
= 2x² -y² +5xy -2y
a) there are 4 terms in the simplified expression
b) 2 terms have negative coefficients (-y² and -2y)
Answer:
80 millimeters
Step-by-step explanation:
Centimeters to millimeters: multiply the length value by 10
You would times 8 by 10 = 80