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KIM [24]
4 years ago
15

Pls do it plz plz plz DO IT THE NOW!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Zigmanuir [339]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(2 , 30)   & (4, 60)

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 15x

When x = 2 , y = 15*2 = 30

When x = 4 ;   y = 15 *4 = 60

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Find the inverse of f(ℎ) =ℎ^2 − 2ℎ + 4 <br><br>ℎ ≥ 1
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

f^{-1}(h) =  \sqrt{h - 1} + 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given, f(h) = h^{2} - 2h + 4.

                   h ≥ 1 .

f(h) = (h-1)^{2} + 3.

Now, to calculate the inverse of the function we have to interchange h and f(h). {Where interchanged f(h) will represent inverse of the function}

So,

 h = (f(h)-1)^{2} + 3

 h - 3  = (f(h)-1)^{2}

 f(h) -1 = \sqrt{h - 1}

  f(h) =   \sqrt{h - 1} + 1.

f(h) ⇒  Representing inverse of f(h) as stated above.

Thus, f^{-1}(h) =  \sqrt{h - 1} + 1.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help with a system of equations
sweet [91]

Answer:

\boxed{x - y = -2\sqrt{7}}

Given:

x + y = 4 \\  \\  {x}^{2}  +  {y}^{2}  = 22 \\  \\  {x}^{4}  =  {y}^{4}  - 176 \sqrt{7}

Step-by-step explanation:

=  >  {x}^{4}  =  {y}^{4}  - 176 \sqrt{7}  \\  \\  =  >  {x}^{4}  -  {y}^{4}  =  - 176 \sqrt{7}  \\  \\  =  >  {( {x}^{2}) }^{2}  -  { ({y}^{2}) }^{2}  =  - 176 \sqrt{7}  \\  \\  =  > ( {x}^{2}  +  {y}^{2} )( {x}^{2}  -  {y}^{2} ) =  - 176 \sqrt{7}  \\  \\  =  > ( {x}^{2} +  {y}^{2})  (x + y)(x - y) =  - 176 \sqrt{?}  \\  \\  =  > 22 \times 4(x - y) =  - 176 \sqrt{7}  \\  \\  =  > 88(x - y) =  - 176 \sqrt{7}  \\  \\ =  >  x - y =  -  \frac{176 \sqrt{7} }{88}  \\  \\  =  > x - y =  - 2 \sqrt{7}

Identity used:

{x}^{2}  -  {y}^{2} = (x + y)(x - y)

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What's 2 + 2 x 10?<br><br> !0 x 1,00 = ?<br><br> 1,000 x 1,00,00=?
iragen [17]

Answer: 2 + 2 x 10 = 22

10 x 100 (?) = 1,000

1,000 x 10,000 (?) = 10,000,000

Step-by-step explanation:

For A, (2 + 2 x 10), you need to multiply first, 2 x 10 = 20. Then, you must add 2, which equals 22.

For B, which is (10 x 100, I think) you will multiply the top number by the bottom number, let’s say 100 is on the top. You will line thin up, 100 x 10. You will need to multiply 0 times 100, which is 000. You will then need to move over a slot, and then times 100 by 1. After doing that then you add your numbers, which gives you 1,000.

For C you do the same steps you used for B.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Review
garri49 [273]

Answer:

1.32

Step-by-step explanation:

we have the known,

2.13 km * 0.6214 miles = 1.323521 or 1.32 miles

                      1 km  

4 0
3 years ago
Help me with these math problems ​
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

Please read the answers below.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Australia:

75 * 1.87 =140.25  Australian dollars

2. Brazil:

75 * 2.32 = 174 Reals

3. Britain:

75 * 0.69 =  51.75 Pounds

4. Canada:

75 * 1.60 = 120 Canadian dollars

5. China:

75 * 8.28 = 621 Yuan

6. Denmark:

75 * 8.43 = 632.25 Kroner

7. Japan:

75 * 131.55 = 9,866.25 Yen

8. Mexico:

75 * 9.19 = 689.25 Mexican pesos

9. South Africa:

75 * 11.9 = 892.50 Rands

10. Sweden:

75 * 10.61 = 795.75 Kronor

11. Switzerland:

75 * 1.68 = 126 Francs

12. Thailand:

75 * 44.18 = 3,313.50 Baht

Round to the next integer in all currencies.

6 0
4 years ago
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