Answer:
X would be equal to 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
20 divided by 16 equals 1.25.
1.25 times 4 equals to 5.
The answer would be 36:18 and done
Answer:
38.9 square inches.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are asked to find the difference in area covered by a single 3 inch windshield wiper operating with a central angle of 138 degrees compared to a pair of 5 inch wipers operating together each having a central angle of 114 degrees.
We will use area of sector formula to solve our given problem as:
, where, r represents radius and theta represents central angle.
Let us find area of sector with central angle 140 degree and radius 3 inch.



Now, we will find area of sector with central angle 114 degree and radius 5 inch and multiply by 2 as:




Let us find difference of area as shown below:



Therefore, the difference in area covered is approximately 38.9 square inches.
#1 second line: x-y=-3
x=y-3(isolating x to prepare for substitution)(what x is equivalent to)
get back to the first line
x+y=5
(y-3)+y=5(substituting the value of x of the first line with the value of x at the second line)(It is a process to find the intersection between the two lines(line#1 and line#2 are two linear functions)
2y-3=5(simplify)
2y=8(simplify)
y=4(simplify)
line#1 x+y=5
x+(4)=5(plug the value of y back into either line#1 or line#2 will work)(plugging in the y value of the point of intersection to solve for the x value of the point of intersection)
x=1(solve)
the two linear lines intersect at the point(1(x coordinate), 4(y coordinate))(1,4)
#2 (line#1) y=3x-1
(line#2) 2x+y=14
2x+(3x-1)=14
5x-1=14
5x=15
x=3
y=3(3)-1
y=9-1
y=8
(3,8)
#3 line#1 2x+3y=8
line#2 6x+9y=24
2x=8-3y
x=(8-3y)/2
6((8-3y)/2)+9y=24
24-9y+9y=24
24=24
(those two lines are on top of yeach other/the same line)
any point on the line
#4 line#1 3x-4y=12
line#2 y=3/4x-4
3x-4(3/4x-4)=12
3x-3x+16=12
16=12
parallel lines: lines with same slope and different y-intercept
No solution/they never intercept each other
I hope it is helpful, if you have any question, I will answer ASAP
Answer:
1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 4 primes. So the probability for the first draw is 4/9. Since the card is not replaced, the second probability is 3/8. 3/8 * 4/9 is 12/72, which simplifies into 1/6.