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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
14

X + 8 = 20

Mathematics
2 answers:
natta225 [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D. Subtract 8 from both sides

Step-by-step explanation:

you will have x= 12 which will be the answer :)

malfutka [58]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D.

Subtract 8 from both sides

Step-by-step explanation:

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Nikolay [14]

Replace x with π/2 - x to get the equivalent integral

\displaystyle \int_{-\frac\pi2}^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

but the integrand is even, so this is really just

\displaystyle 2 \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

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\displaystyle 2 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(u)}{u^2+4} \, du

There are lots of ways to compute this. What I did was to consider the complex contour integral

\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4} \, dz

where γ is a semicircle in the complex plane with its diameter joining (-R, 0) and (R, 0) on the real axis. A bound for the integral over the arc of the circle is estimated to be

\displaystyle \left|\int_{z=Re^{i0}}^{z=Re^{i\pi}} f(z) \, dz\right| \le \frac{\pi R}{|R^2-4|}

which vanishes as R goes to ∞. Then by the residue theorem, we have in the limit

\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(x)}{x^2+4} \, dx = 2\pi i {} \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4},z=2i\right) = \frac\pi{2e^2}

and it follows that

\displaystyle \int_0^\pi \cos(\cot(x)-\tan(x)) \, dx = \boxed{\frac\pi{e^2}}

7 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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Vertical stretch                       by virtue of the factor 2

Reflection over the x-axis      by virtue of the factor -1

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