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qwelly [4]
2 years ago
14

Consider the algebraic expression:

Mathematics
2 answers:
kotykmax [81]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Mark me as brainlist

Hope it will help you

guapka [62]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

I got it right 2021 edge

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Help pls ill gve brainlist <3 or however you spell it
telo118 [61]

Answer:

1) Is 3 for K

2) is 4 for X

3) is 56 for Y

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the area of the shade regions. Give your answer as a completely simplify exact value in terms of pie(no approximation). a=
mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

<u>125.6 in²</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

Area shaded :

  • 2 × Sector (72°)
  • 2 x πr² x θ/360
  • 2 x 3.14 x 100 x 72/360
  • 6.28 x 100 x 1/5
  • 20 x 6.28
  • <u>125.6 in²</u>
4 0
1 year ago
The ratio of ducks to geese in a pond is 3 : 5. There are 27 ducks.<br> How many geese are there?
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

D:G-------> 3:5

27/3=9

9 x 5= 45

45 geese

7 0
2 years ago
What is the output value for the following function if the input value is 3.2?
mars1129 [50]
For functions, there is only many input values, but there can be only one output value, and there can be no identical x values. For this, x=3.2. If y= 2*3.2 - 1, then y=5.4.
3 0
2 years ago
Determine if the given mapping phi is a homomorphism on the given groups. If so, identify its kernel and whether or not the mapp
shtirl [24]

Answer:

(a) No. (b)Yes. (c)Yes. (d)Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) If \phi: G \longrightarrow G is an homomorphism, then it must hold

that b^{-1}a^{-1}=(ab)^{-1}=\phi(ab)=\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^{-1}b^{-1},

but the last statement is true if and only if G is abelian.

(b) Since G is abelian, it holds that

\phi(a)\phi(b)=a^nb^n=(ab)^{n}=\phi(ab)

which tells us that \phi is a homorphism. The kernel of \phi

is the set of elements g in G such that g^{n}=1. However,

\phi is not necessarily 1-1 or onto, if G=\mathbb{Z}_6 and

n=3, we have

kern(\phi)=\{0,2,4\} \quad \text{and} \quad\\\\Im(\phi)=\{0,3\}

(c) If z_1,z_2 \in \mathbb{C}^{\times} remeber that

|z_1 \cdot z_2|=|z_1|\cdot|z_2|, which tells us that \phi is a

homomorphism. In this case

kern(\phi)=\{\quad z\in\mathbb{C} \quad | \quad |z|=1 \}, if we write a

complex number as z=x+iy, then |z|=x^2+y^2, which tells

us that kern(\phi) is the unit circle. Moreover, since

kern(\phi) \neq \{1\} the mapping is not 1-1, also if we take a negative

real number, it is not in the image of \phi, which tells us that

\phi is not surjective.

(d) Remember that e^{ix}=\cos(x)+i\sin(x), using this, it holds that

\phi(x+y)=e^{i(x+y)}=e^{ix}e^{iy}=\phi(x)\phi(x)

which tells us that \phi is a homomorphism. By computing we see

that  kern(\phi)=\{2 \pi n| \quad n \in \mathbb{Z} \} and

Im(\phi) is the unit circle, hence \phi is neither injective nor

surjective.

7 0
3 years ago
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