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Schach [20]
3 years ago
13

Which of the following are

Business
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D

Explanation:

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A Liquidation of a partnership LO P5 Kendra, Cogley, and Mei share income and loss in a 3:2:1 ratio (in ratio form: Kendra, 3/6;
morpeh [17]

Answer:

a. Inventory is sold for $608,400.

gain on sale of inventory = $608,400 - $537,600 = $70,800

allocation of gain:

Kendra 1/2 x $70,800 = $35,400

Cogley 1/3 x $70,800 = $23,600

Mei 1/6 x $70,800 = $11,800

Dr Cash 608,400

    Cr Inventory 537,600

    Cr Gain on sale of inventory 70,800

Dr Gain on sale of inventory 70,800

    Cr Kendra, capital 35,400

    Cr Cogley, capital 23,600

    Cr Mei, capital 11,800

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Kendra, capital 112,100

Dr Cogley, capital 196,175

Dr Mei, capital 146,025

    Cr Cash 454,300

b. Inventory is sold for $469,200.

loss on sale of inventory = $469,200 - $537,600 = -$69,400

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $68,400 = $34,200

Cogley 1/3 x $68,400 = $22,800

Mei 1/6 x $68,400 = $11,400

Dr Cash 469,200

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 68,400

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 34,300

Dr Cogley, capital 22,800

Dr Mei, capital 11,400

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 68,400

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Kendra, capital 42,400

Dr Cogley, capital 149,775

Dr Mei, capital 122,825

    Dr Cash 315,100

c) c. Inventory is sold for $358,800 and any partners with capital deficits pay in the amount of their deficits.

loss on sale of inventory = $358,800 - $537,600 = -$178,800

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $178,800 = $89,400

Cogley 1/3 x $178,800 = $59,600

Mei 1/6 x $178,800 = $29,800

Dr Cash 358,800

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 178,800

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 89,400

Dr Cogley, capital 59,600

Dr Mei, capital 29,800

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 178,800

Dr Cash 12,700

    Cr Kendra, capital 12,700

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Cogley, capital 112,975

Dr Mei, capital 104,425

    Dr Cash 217,400

   

d. Inventory is sold for $298,800 and the partners have no assets other than those invested in the partnership.

loss on sale of inventory = $298,800 - $537,600 = -$238,800

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $238,800 = $119,400

Cogley 1/3 x $238,800 = $79,600

Mei 1/6 x $238,800 = $39,800

Dr Cash 298,800

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 238,800

    Cr Inventory 537,600

 

Dr Kendra, capital 119,400

Dr Cogley, capital 79,600

Dr Mei, capital 39,800

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 238,800

Dr Cogley, capital 28,467

Dr Mei, capital 14,233

    Cr Kendra, capital 42,700

Dr Accounts payable 258,000

    Cr Cash 258,000

Dr Cogley, capital 64,508

Dr Mei, capital 80,192

    Dr Cash 144,700

6 0
3 years ago
Capital structure decisions include determining: Group of answer choices The terms of a bond issue to fund a project. the amount
IgorC [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": The terms of a bond issue to fund a project.

Explanation:

Capital structure is the mixture of a company's debt and equity to fund its long-term operations and growth. Common stock is the most common type of capital for publicly traded companies, which typically forms the majority of a company's stock ownership. Bonds are another firm companies raises funds from under a repayment promissory note. Capital structure helps investors to assess the optimal value of a firm's capital expense.

5 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2017, Smeder Company, an 80% owned subsidiary of Collins, Inc., transferred equipment with a 10-year life (six of
maks197457 [2]

Answer:

Credit accumulated depreciation for 2017 is $46,000

Explanation:

Accumulated depreciation increases as a result of increase in depreciation charged on fixed assets.

Given that:

Accumulated Depreciation = $48,000

Deferred Gain on Transfer = $12,000

Amortization of Gain = Deferred Gain on Transfer / 6 years remaining = $12000 / 6 = $2000

Credit to Accumulated Depreciation for 2017 = Accumulated Depreciation - Deferred gain on transfer = $48000 - $2000 = $46000

8 0
3 years ago
At the present time, Water and Power Company (WPC) has 5-year noncallable bonds with a face value of $1,000 that are outstanding
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

6.53%      

Explanation:

For computing the after cost of debt we need to use the RATE formula i.e to be shown in attached spreadsheet. Kindly find it below:

Given that,  

Present value = $1,050.76

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 10% = $100

NPER = 5 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after applying this above formula

1. The pretax cost of debt is 8.70

2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 8.70% × ( 1 - 0.25)

= 6.53%      

6 0
2 years ago
Caspion Corporation makes and sells a product called a Miniwarp. One Miniwarp requires 2.5 kilograms of the raw material Jurislo
yan [13]

Answer:

I think it's (B)

I hope that's right

6 0
3 years ago
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