Answer: Check attachment and explanation.
Explanation:
a. The question has been solved. Check the attachment.
b. LAKEVIEW COMPANY
Balance sheet (Partial)
December 31
Current liabilities
FICA Payable=$4800 + $4800= $9600
Charitable contribution payable = $2400
Withheld income tax payable = $6400
State and Federal unemployment tax payable = $560
Unearned rent revenue = $5700 - $3800 = $1900
Total current liabilities = $20860
Answer:
yield to maturity = 7.06%
Explanation:
yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:
YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]
- FV = $2,000
- PV = $1,902.14
- C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
- n = 12 x 2 = 24
YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually
Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that when allocating funds, the firm should probably assign the highest cost of capital to division Z because it is most likely the riskiest of the three divisions. This is because Division Z focuses on research and development which means that they might not actually discover or create something that can bring value to the company and is therefore highly risky.
Answer:
The marginal rate of technical substitution will remain constant.
Explanation:
The marginal rate of technical substitution is the rate at which an input is substituted for others. For instance, it is the rate at which the amount of labor should be decreased to increase the amount of capital.
It represents the slope of an isoquant. When the inputs are perfectly substitutable, the isoquant is a straight line. In this situation, the marginal rate of technical substitution remains the same at all the points of the isoquants. The MRTS remains constant, though further information is needed to find out if it is high or low.
