1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
sergejj [24]
3 years ago
6

Plea bargaining allows courts to reduce their already huge caseloads. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T

F
Social Studies
2 answers:
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: True

Explanation:

4vir4ik [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

It is true that plea bargaining allows courts to reduce their already huge caseloads.

Explanation:

One logic that underpins the use of plea bargaining is that both parties are better off in the exchange. Some defendants see it as advantageous to waive their rights to a trial by pleading guilty so that they get a reduced charge or more favorable sentence. The defendant can secure more reasonable sentences where a conviction is almost certain and the prosecutor can save on time and resources that are needed to prepare and to execute a trial. There is also an advantage to the court system when plea bargaining is an option because such agreements require fewer resources from the court. Another possible advantage of the plea bargain is that victims and witnesses do not have to testify and risk public exposure of intimate details in the case of a trial for a traumatic event.

You might be interested in
What was happening during the time of the Inca decline?
aivan3 [116]
ALL OF THE ABOVEEEEEEEE
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was the economy that ancient egypt was based on?
Delicious77 [7]
Thier economy was called the ancient command. Meaning distribution was based on land after every inundation was based on.
8 0
3 years ago
A restaurant owner leased a meeting room at the restaurant to a second party. The lease specified that the second party, not the
zloy xaker [14]

Answer:

Non-insurance Transfer

Explanation:

Non - insurance Transfer -

Non - insurance transfer is also referred to as a contractual risk transfer .

It refers to the transfer of the risk from one party to other than any insurance company , is referred to as the non - insurance transfer.

In this case , the amount of risk is covered by the contracts rather than the insurance.

Hence, from the given scenario of the question,

The correct term is non - insurance transfer.

4 0
3 years ago
8 facts about nelson mandela list them please!!!!!
Allushta [10]

Answer:1.)Nelson Mandela was the president of South Africa from 1994-1999. He was the first black president of South Africa, and the first president to be elected in a fully representative election.

2.)Nelson Mandela's government focused on destroying the Apartheid government in the country, which had focused on racial segregation enforced by the law.

3.)In school, Mandela studied law and became one of South Africa’s first black lawyers.

4.)In the 1950s, he was elected leader of the youth wing of the African National Congress (ANC) liberation movement.

5.)When the government prohibited the ANC for racial reasons, Mandela organized a secret military movement. He had previously been involved in peaceful protests but when they were met with violence from the government he went on to support an armed movement.

6.)Mandela was imprisoned from 1962-1990 for treason and conspiracy against the government. He was sentenced to life in prison, but was released early when the ANC became legal again.

7.)While he was in prison, Mandela was a symbol to rally behind for the oppressed in South Africa who were fighting for rights.

8.)After retirement from politics, Mandela started the Nelson Mandela Foundation that focused on combating HIV/AIDS and supported rural development and school construction.

7 0
4 years ago
Why does the government believe it has the right to intervene in markets to promote competition?
Katena32 [7]
<span>The Government thinks it has the right to intervene in markets because it should be in charge of regulating and controlling the markets to set equal standards to everyone and, in this way,promote a fair competition. It does not mean, it should intervene in markets themselves, it just set the grounds and make people follow the law and rules </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Why did Alexander destroy Thebes?
    6·2 answers
  • Why was Southeast Usa called the land of the flowers?<br> (10 points) I will really appreciate it:))
    8·1 answer
  • I have a question, who is the 23 President
    11·2 answers
  • Milton is an 8-year-old. according to harter's research, what is the single most important aspect of milton's life that will det
    8·1 answer
  • What was the common school movement?
    11·1 answer
  • Describe an example of a differentiated product, such as a car from the United States and a car from Japan.
    15·1 answer
  • _________________ is an internalized sense of the total expectations of others in a variety of settings-regardless of whether we
    9·1 answer
  • In her book Nickeled and Dimed, Ehrenreich tells of a colleague who becomes "frantic about a painfully impacted wisdom tooth and
    6·2 answers
  • What landform has the nickname of the "Roof of the World"?
    12·1 answer
  • I need help with number 1
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!