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azamat
2 years ago
14

Steelweld, a car parts manufacturer, pays employees a higher hourly rate as they learn to master more parts of the work process.

Employees earn $10 per hour when they are hired and they can earn up to $20 per hour if they master all 12 work units in the production process. What is most likely a benefit Steelweld is trying to achieve with this reward system?
Business
1 answer:
AlexFokin [52]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The improvement of workforce flexibility

Explanation:

The work force flexibility may be defined as the strategy of the responding to changing circumstances as well as expectations. It lays emphasizes on the flexibility and the willingness to adapt to change. The employees who approach their work with a flexible mindset are highly valued by the employers.

In the context, Steelweld company pays their employees at a higher hourly rate when they learn to master more work skills. The employees are paid much higher when they master all the 12 work units than they were hired. By doing this, the Steelweld company is trying to benefit and improve the workforce flexibility in their company.

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On January 1, 2005, Jambon purchased equipment for use in developing a new product. Jambon uses the straight-line depreciation m
notsponge [240]

Answer:

A. The total cost of the equipment.

Explanation:

Even if Jambon has not used the equipment in 2005 because it can only be used for the product that is to be developed in five years, Jambon still had to pay for the full cost of the equipment.

Because the equipment is laying idle, it is not depreciating. Therefore, the expense that Jambon is not incurring, is the depreciation expense associated with this equipment. This depreciation expense will only be seen in five years, when the product it was bought for is finally completed.

8 0
3 years ago
When the present value of the cash inflows exceeds the initial cost of a project, then the project should be: accepted because t
AURORKA [14]
Is the multiple chose in it right or nah? <span />
6 0
3 years ago
Mervon Company has two operating departments: Mixing and Bottling. Mixing has 350 employees and Bottling has 350 employees. Indi
krok68 [10]

Answer:

Allocated administrative cost for mixing is $81000

And allocated administrative cost for for bottling is $81000

Explanation:

We have given total number of employs for mixing = 350

And total number of employs for bottling = 350

Administrative cost = $162000

So total number of employs = 350+350 = 700

So allocation base for mixing =\frac{350}{700}=0.5

So allocated amount for mixing = 0.5×$162000 = $81000

Allocation base for bottling = =\frac{350}{700}=0.5

So allocated amount for bottling = 0.5×$162000 = $81000

3 0
3 years ago
National Bank quotes the following for the British pound and the New Zealand dollar: Quoted Bid Price Quoted Ask Price Value of
Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

$15.43

Explanation:

Following actions are required for triangular arbitrage:

Available: $ 10,000

Buy sterling pound @ 1 $ = 1.62 pounds and receive pounds 6172.84 upon conversion.

Now, sell these pounds and purchase NZ $ at the rate :

1 pound = NZ $ 2.95 and receive NZ$ 18209.87

Now, reconvert the above proceeds into US $ at the rate

1 NZ $ = $0.55 i.e sell NZ $ at this rate and receive US $ 10,015.4285

Hence profit from implementing triangular arbitrage is $10,015.43 - $10,000

= $15.43

Arbitrage refers to the prospect of earning a profit by utilizing the mispricing in two different financial markets. An arbitrageur never uses his own funds and always borrows.

Arbitrage works only in the scenario wherein the interest rate purchase parity (IRPT) does not hold good.

The strategy of arbitrage is best explained as "Buy at low price and sell at a high price".

 

7 0
3 years ago
Computing second-year depreciation and accumulated depreciationAt the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

1. a.$4,375,000

  b. $7,500,000

 c. $9,800,000

2. $8,750,000

  $18,200,000

  $17,500,000

Explanation:

1. The computation of the depreciation expense for the second year is presented  below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ (8 years)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ (8 years)  

= $4,375,000

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 8

= 12.5%

Now the rate is double So, 25%

In year 1, the original cost is $40,000,000 so the depreciation is $10,000,000 after applying the 25% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the $30,000,000 × 25% = $7,500,000

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

In first year, it would be

= Miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,200,000 miles × $7

= $8,400,000

Now for the second year, it would be  

= Miles in second year × depreciation per miles

= 1,400,000 miles × $7

= $9,800,000

2. The calculation of the accumulated depreciation balance would be

Straight line method:

= $4,375,000 + $4,375,000

= $8,750,000

Double-declining balance method:

= $10,000,000 + $7,500,000

= $17,500,000

Units-of-production method:

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

=  $18,200,000

4 0
3 years ago
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