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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
10

Tampa Company has the following information: Total estimated manufacturing overhead costs $300,000 Total estimated direct labor

costs 900,000 Actual direct labor costs 60,000 Actual manufacturing overhead costs 310,000 What is the predetermined overhead allocation rate based on direct labor costs as a single plantwide rate?
Business
1 answer:
Anarel [89]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: 33.3%

Explanation: The predetermined overhead rate allocates the manufacturing overhead to products. This is based on an estimate, as it is done at the beginning of the financial year. It uses an allocation base, which is usually a cost driver. A cost driver is a type of activity that causes a change in the cost of said activity. Examples of cost drivers usually used are: direct labour hours or machine hours.

The formula for calculating the predetermined overhead rate is:

Total estimated overhead costs ÷ total estimated overhead allocation base (estimated direct labour costs is used)

300 000 ÷ 900 000 = 0.33333 × 100 = 33.3%

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The court will most likely consider the parties' relative bargaining power.

<u>Option: C</u>

<u>Explanation:</u>

Bargaining power is the collective ability of groups to put control over one another in a circumstance. If all sides are in a dispute on an equivalent basis, then they would have equal bargaining power, such as in a reasonably free market, or between a monopoly and monopsony fairly balanced.

Purchaser bargaining power relates to the leverage customers may impose on businesses to get them to offer higher quality goods, improved customer satisfaction and lower costs. A powerful purchaser will make a market more profitable and diminish the seller's profit potential.

5 0
3 years ago
A machine with a cost of $75,000 has an estimated residual value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 4 years or 18,000 hours. Wha
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

The answer is:  $18, 750

Explanation:

The double-declining-balance(DDB) method entails computing depreciation of an asset at an accelerated rate. This method is employed when the asset loses value quickly and is expected to generate more revenue at the earlier stages of its useful life. The depreciation is higher at the beginning and lower close to the end of the asset's useful life. The depreciation is computed as follows:

Depreciation = 2 * straight line depreciation percentage * Book value at the beginning of the period

Machine cost: $75, 000

Residual Value: $5, 000

Estimated Life: 4 years/18, 000 hours

Straight line depreciation percentage : 100/4 = 25%

Depreciation Year 1 on DDB =  2 * 25% * $75, 000

                                               = $37, 500

Depreciation Year 2 on DDB =  2 * 25% * ($75, 000 -$37, 500)

                                               = $18, 750

       

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the term structure is currently flat so that bonds of all maturities have yields to maturity of 10%. Currently a 5-
laila [671]

Answer:

Explanation:

a) PV=$1000

As price is equal to face value then the Coupon rate will be equal to its YTM, 10%.

Annual Coupons = 10% * 1000 = $100

b.) We have purchased the bond for $1000, so our investment is $1000

At the end of the year 1, we get a coupon of $100 and the selling price.

1st CASE - When monetary policy is tight.

New YTM = 12%

Time left to maturity (n) = 4 years

Coupon payment = $100

Price = Coupon payment X PVAF(YTM, n) + Face Value X PVF(YTM, n)

[USE TABLES or Financial calculator]

Price = 100 X PVAF(12%, 4) + 1000 X PVF(12%, 4) = 100 X 3.307 + 1000 X .636 = 303.7 + 636 = $939.7

If we sell the bond, Return = (Coupon Received + Selling price - Purchase price ) \div Purchase price

= (100 + 939.7 - 1000) \div 1000 = .0397 or 3.97%

Scenario 2 - When monetory policy is loose

New YTM = 8%

Time left to maturity (n) = 4 years

Coupon payment = $100

Therefore, Price = Coupon payment X PVAF(YTM, n) + Face Value X PVF(YTM, n)

Price = 100 X PVAF(8%, 4) + 1000 X PVF(8%, 4) = 100 X 3.312 + 1000 X .735 = 331.2 + 735 = $1066.2

If we sell the bond, Return = (Coupon Received + Selling price - Purchase price ) \div Purchase price

= (100 + 1066.2 - 1000) \div 1000 = .1662 or 16.62%

4 0
3 years ago
When Moon Star Products Inc. planned to start its operations in United Cadvia, an emerging nation, it realized that it will have
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

a. Equity alliance

Explanation:

Equity alliance -

It is the process , in which one of the company take the equity stake of the other company and vice versa , is referred to as equity alliance .

Due to this ,  the company becomes shareholder and stakeholder of each other .

The share acquired is the minor one , so that the company still have the power of decision making .

Hence , same case is shown in the question ,where the Moon Star Products Inc.buys the 40 % of the stock of Gold Logistics .

8 0
3 years ago
Bonita, Inc. uses activity-based costing as the basis for information to set prices for its six lines of seasonal coats.
jeka94

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the activities rates, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Designing= 452,795 / 11,900= $38.05 per designer hour

Sizing and cutting= 4,231,150 / 157,000= $36.95 per machine hour

Stitching and trimming= 1,501,000 / 79,000= $19 per labor hour

Wrapping and packing= 327,050 / 31,000= $10.55 per finished unit

4 0
3 years ago
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