Help me with the please

What is 3/4 equal too

Dovator [93]

3/4 is equal to .75 .................................

3 0

3 years ago

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ILL GIVE YOU 30 POINTS PLEASE HELP

padilas [110]

Answer:

x = 58

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles are vertical angles and vertical angles are equal

x = 58

5 0

2 years ago

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Two complementary angles are represented by x and x+14 . find the value of x

qaws [65]

Answer:

$x=38\textdegree$

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that complementary angles <em>always </em>add up to 90°.

We know that the two complementary angles are represented by (x) and (x+14). In other words:

$(x)+(x+14)=90$

So, let's solve for x.

First, combine like terms:

$2x+14=90$

Let's isolate the x by subtracting 14 from both sides:

$(2x+14)-14=(90)-14$

The left cancels. Subtract on the right:

$2x=76$

Divide both sides by 2:

$\frac{2x}{2}=\frac{76}{2}$

The left side cancels. Divide on the right:

$x=38\textdegree$

So, the value of x is 38°.

And we're done!

6 0

2 years ago

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PLEASE HELP ME WITH THIS!!!!!

nadezda [96]

For the given experiment of spinning a spinner and drawing a card, we will see that:

A) Yes, the events are independent.
B) P(3 and A) = 1/16
C) P(5 and C) = 0
D) P(4) = 1/4
P(B or C) = 1/2
E) P(3 and not D) = 3/16

<h3>What are independent events?</h3>

We say that two events are independent if the outcome of one does not affect the outcome of the other.

In this case, the outcome of the spinner clearly does not affect the outcome of the card draw, so the events are independent.

<h3>How to get the probabilities?</h3>

B) First we want to get the probability of getting 3 and A.

The probability of getting a 3 when drawing a card is given by the quotient between the numbers of card with the number 3 (only one) and the total number of cards, so we have:

p = 1/4

Similar for the case of the spinner, the letter A appears twice, and there are a total of 8 letters, then the probability is:

q = 2/8 = 1/4

The joint probability is the product of the two individual probabilities, we have:

P(3 and A) = p*q = 1/4*1/4 = 1/16

C) The probability of getting a 5 and the letter C is 0, because there is no card with the number 5.

D) P(4) is the probability of drawing the card with the number 4, this is:

p = 1/4

P(B or C) is the probability of spinning the letter B or C. There are 2 B's and 2 C's, and a total of 8 letters, so the probability is:

q = (2 + 2)/8 = 1/2

E) P(1 and not D) is equal to: P(1 and A or B or C).

P(1) is 1/4.

P(A or B or C) is 6 over 8 (because there are 6 cards that are either an A, a B, or a C)

Then the joint probability is:

P(1 and not D) = (1/4)*(6/8) = 3/16

If you want to learn more about probability, you can read:

brainly.com/question/251701

8 0

1 year ago

If a certain trip takes 40 minutes when you travel 50 miles per hour, how many minutes would it take if you travel 40 miles per

vitfil [10]

Answer:

It would take 50 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Distance, velocity and time</u>

The speed is the rate at which the distance changes with respect to time. If x is the distance, t is the time, the speed v can be obtained by

$\displaystyle v=\frac{x}{t}$

We know the trip takes 40 minutes when traveling at 50 miles/hour. The distance can be determined by isolating x in the above equation

$x=vt$

The given time is expressed in minutes, we need to convert it to hours. 40 minutes is $\frac{40}{60}=0.6666...\ hours$ . The distance is

$\displaystyle x=(50)(0.666..)=33.33\ miles$

If the speed was 40 miles/hour, the same distance would be covered in t hours, taken from the above equation as

$\displaystyle t=\frac{x}{v}$

$t=\frac{33.33}{40}=0.8333\ hours = 0.83333*60= 50\ minutes$

4 0

3 years ago

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