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Karolina [17]
3 years ago
10

Using the percentage-of-receivables method for recording bad debt expense, estimated uncollectible accounts are $45,000. If the

balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is a $6,000 credit before adjustment, what is the amount of bad debt expense for that period
Business
1 answer:
Liula [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$39,000

Explanation:

Estimated uncollectible account is $45,000

The balance of allowance for doubtful account is $6,000 credit before the adjustment

Therefore the amount of bad debt expense for that period can be calculated as follows

= $45,000-$6,000

= $39,000

Hence the amount of bad debt expense for that period is $39,000

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A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
3 years ago
Click this link to view O*NET's Education section for Construction Managers. According to O*NET, what is the most
MrMuchimi

Answer:

bachelors degree

Explanation:

just answered this on my test and got correct.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Arctica manufactures snowmobiles and ATVs. These products are made in different departments, and each department has its own man
Ilya [14]

Answer: Please see explanation for answers.

Explanation.

SW=Snowmobile

Given:

SM ATV Combined SM ATV Combine

            Budget       |   Actual

Raw materials $19,990 $28,000 $47,990 $19,920 $29,320$49,240

Employee wages 10,900 21,000 31,900 11,210 21,740 32,950

Dept. manager salary 4,800 5,700 10,500 4,900 4,900 9,800

Supplies used 3,850 1,400 5,250 3,670 1,420 5,090

Depreciation- Equip. 6,500 13,000 19,500 6,500 13,000 19,500

Utilities 410 590 1,000 380 550 930

Rent 6,200 6,800 13,000 5,800 6,800 12,600

Totals $52,650 $76,490 $129,148 $52,380 $77,730 $130,110

A responsibility accounting performance report is a budget that makes comparison of actual and budgeted amounts under the controlled costs in a department .Here utilities and rent costs cannot be controlled so will not be included.

Responsibility accounting report for the snowmobile department.

Budgeted   Actual Over/Under Budget

Controlled costs

Raw materials  19,990  19,920   -70

Employee wages 10,900   11,210  310

Dept. manager salary4,800 4,900 100

Supplies used   3,850   3,670   -180

Depreciation- Equip.6,500  6,500  0

Total               46,040    $46,200  160

Calculations .

Over/Underbudget = Actual - Budgeted amount.

Raw materials  =19,920-19990=   -70

Employee wages 11,210-10,900=  310

Dept. manager salary4,900-4800=100

Supplies used   3,670-3850= -180

Depreciation- Equip.6,500 -6,500 =0

3 0
3 years ago
Sienna’s take home pay is $13,400. The company deducts $200 from her pay as part of her voluntary deductions. Her total tax dedu
dlinn [17]

Answer:

Gross pay= $20,000

Explanation:

She takes $ 13,400.

the company deducted $200 as voluntary deductions.

She had $13600 after paying tax 32%which is equivalent to 68%

$                      %

13600              68

x                      100

x= 13600*100/68= 1360000/100= $20,000

Her gross pay is $ 20,000

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is true?
netineya [11]

Answer:

d. The present value of perpetuity varies directly with the annual repayments.

Explanation:

A perpetuity is a security or bond which pays a fixed amount of cash flow at a fixed interval forever. So the amount it pays stays the same and it keeps paying for ever. The formula to find the present value of a perpetuity is

Cash flow of perpetuity/Interest Rate

So if the annual payment is 100 and the interest rate is 5% the present value of the annuity is

100/0.05=2,000

If we keep the interest rate the same at 5% and increase the cash flow by 100 to 200 the new present value of the perpetuity is

200/0.05=4,000

This proves that the present value of a perpetuity varies directly with the annual repayments or cash flow of perpetuity.

4 0
3 years ago
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