Answer:
$0
Explanation:
According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.
Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000
Market Value = $53,000
Discounted Value = $51,000
There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.
Answer: The segment margin is obtained by deducting the common fixed costs that have been allocated to a segment from that segment's contribution margin
Explanation:
Segment margin is referred to the net profit or the net loss that a particular segment of a business makes. Segment margin is used to know segments that are performing well.
It is also used to know the long-run profitability of a particular segment as it shows the margin that is available after the cost has been covered by a segment.
Based on the above illustration, the statement that isn't true will be "the segment margin is obtained by deducting the common fixed costs that have been allocated to a segment from that segment's contribution margin".
This is false as segment margin is gotten after the traceable fixed costs of a segment has been subtracted from the contribution margin of that particular segment.
Answer:
A. The company paid a higher cost for the direct materials than allowed by the standards.
Explanation:
The following is a logical explanation for this variance:
Since, the standard quantity of raw materials to be used is 22 pounds x 500 units = 11000 pounds. The actual usage is 9500 pounds ony. Hence, variance in direct material price variance can be only due to higher cost of direct material purchased.
Answer:
A) total debt = $2,230,000 and it represents 175,000 - 125,000 = 50,000 outstanding shares
price per share = $2,230,000 / 50,000 = $44.60 per share
B) enterprise value = 175,000 x $44.60 = $7,805,000
According to M&M proposition I, the enterprise value is the same with or without any outstanding debt. So the company's value is the same for both alternatives.
Answer:
$140,000
Explanation:
The difference between operating incomes under absorption costing and variable costing based on fixed expenses is shown below:
Variable costing:
Fixed manufacturing overhead in production $750,000
Absorption costing:
The Fixed cost would be
= Beginning fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory + Fixed manufacturing overhead in production - Ending fixed manufacturing overhead in inventory
= $190,000 + $750,000 - $50,000
= $890,000
So, the difference would be
= $890,000 - $750,000
= $140,000
