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Kobotan [32]
3 years ago
7

In a carnival game, there are six identical boxes, one of which contains a prize. A contestant wins the prize by selecting the b

ox containing it. Before each game, the old prize is removed and another prize is placed at random in one of the six boxes. Is it appropriate to use the binomial probability distribution to find the probability that a contestant who plays the game five times wins exactly twice?
A) Yes. The five trials are independent, have only two outcomes, and have the same P(success); n = 5, r = 2, p = 1/5.
B) Yes. The five trials are independent, have only two outcomes, and have the same P(success); n = 2, r = 5, p = 1/6.
C) No. The five trials are independent, but have more than two outcomes.
D) Yes. The five trials are independent, have only two outcomes, and have the same P(success); n = 5, r = 2, p = 1/6.
Mathematics
1 answer:
myrzilka [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D) Yes. The five trials are independent, have only two outcomes, and have the same P(success); n = 5, r = 2, p = 1/6.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Number of boxes = 6

Box containing a prize = 1

Probability of success, p = box containing a price / number of boxes = 1 /6

Number of trials = 5

Probability of success on exactly 2 trials, r = 2

Hence,

P(r = 2) = nCr * p^r * (1-p)^(n-r)

n = 5 ; r = 2 ; p = 1/6

Using a binomial probability calculator :

P(r = 2) = 0.1608

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Please answer both of these questions. :) Thank you!
son4ous [18]
Answers:
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Heigh Question: 73 centimeters

Explanations:
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3 years ago
show all work to multiply 3 plus the square root of negative 16 times 6 minus the square root of negative 64
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

\Huge \boxed{3+16i}

\rule[225]{225}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

3+\sqrt{-16} * 6-\sqrt{-64}

Using imaginary number rule : \sqrt{-n} =\sqrt{n} *i

Where n is a positive integer.

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Find ? in each case.
user100 [1]

Answer:

a) For this case we have that n = 30 and p =1/6

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=1/6)

b)  For this case we have that n = 10 and p =1/100

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=1/100)

c)  For this case we have that n = 20 and p =0.3

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.3)      

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Assuming the following question : "For each of the following binomial random variables specify n and p"  

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For this case we have that n = 30 and p =1/6

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=1/6)

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For this case we have that n = 10 and p =1/100

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=1/100)

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For this case we have that n = 20 and p =0.3

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.3)

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