<span>a volcanic island forms and subsides</span>
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": are damages in excess of the plaintiff's injuries, awarded to punish the defendant.
Explanation:
Punitive Damages are penalties passed to the defendant of court cases on top of compensations they must pay to plaintiffs because of the faults they committed. The punitive damage is not provided to the plaintiffs but is imposed to punish defendants when their faults are negligent and should not be repeated.
Thus, <em>punish damages are imposed in an attempt to avoid other individuals to commit the same gross faults.</em>
Answer:
3 1/3 years
Explanation:
Payback period is the time required for the inflows from a project to be equal to the initial outflow for the project. It is a key consideration in capital budgeting. It is usually assumed that the outlay or initial outflow is made in year 0 and the first inflow comes in after a year.
Year Cash outflow Cash inflow Balance
0 ($50,000) - ($50,000)
1 - $15,000 ($35,000)
2 - $15,000 ($20,000)
3 - $15,000 ($5,000)
4 - $15,000 $10,000
5 - $15,000 $25,000
Hence the payback period
= 3 years and 5000/15000 * 12 months
= 3 years 4 months
= 3 1/3 years
Answer:
a. Toby is not maximizing his utility
b. Toby should reduce his spending on cashew and increase his spending on peanuts.
Explanation:
a. Is Toby maximizing his total utility from the kinds of nuts? If so, explain how you know.
Toby will maximize his utility when we have:
MUp/Pp = MUc/Pc
Where;
MUp/Pp = Marginal utility of peanut divided by price of peanut = 100/10 = 10
MUc/Pc = Marginal utility of cashew divided by price of cash = 200/25 = 8
From the above, Toby is not maximizing his utility. I am able to know this because MUp/Pp > MUc/Pc (i.e. 10 > 8). An Toby will only maximize his utility when MUp/Pp = MUc/Pc.
b. If not, how should he rearrange his spending?
Since MUp/Pp > MUc/Pc (i.e. 10 > 8), Toby should reduce his spending on cashew in order to increase MUc and increase his spending on peanuts reduce MUp until MUp/Pp = MUc/Pc.
Answer:
The Time Value of Money formula is FV = PV x [ 1 + (i / n) ] (n x t)] where V is the Future value of money, PV is the Present value of money, i is the interest rate, n is the number of impounding periods per year, and t is the number of years.
