Yes,
oligarchy fits as a description of South African government under the system of apartheid. In the
political philosophy of Aristotle, "
aristocracy" is "rule by the excellent ones," and in certain eras of history or in some societies, one group or another has been portrayed as more "excellent" and thus more favorable for serving as governors. In Aristotle's political thought, an
"oligarchy" or "rule by a few" is a corruption of the idea of aristocracy. But Aristotle was biased, believing that by nature some persons are more excellent than others, that some are more suited by nature to be followers, not leaders. (Aristotle used such logic in defending the institution of slavery, for instance.) Today,
we might argue that any sort of "aristocracy" or elitism is always an oligarchy, an arbitrary system in which a few dominate over the many because of factors that can't rationally be defended.For another answer on a similar question, read more on Brainly.com -
brainly.com/question/9475348#readmore
C because making the places where the crops would grow was dusty and every time wind would come through it would swoop the dust up in the air because of the groves
I would say this would be A..not sure though.
Answer:
The nobility in France enjoyed special privileges over the peasants during the late 1700s. Although most French peasants were ostensibly free, they still had to pay feudal dues. They owed the corvee, which was forced labor on public works projects such as roads and bridges. Peasants also had weak property rights with the capitaineries feudal dues that allowed the nobles to destroy peasant lands in pursuit of their own goals. The nobility did not have to pay taxes but enjoyed many advantages on the backs of the peasants doing forced labor.
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