What was the difference between Spanish settlements in South America and Asia?

History

2 answers:

son4ous [18]3 years ago

6 0

I think the answer is (B)! I hope this helps! Good luck! :)

anastassius [24]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

I believe the answer is B. There were more missions in South America than in Asia.

Explanation:

The Philipines for example which was under Spanish for several hundred years did not have as many Catholic Church missions as there were in Latin America.

You might be interested in

Can someone please help me fill this out

BartSMP [9]

Answer: hmm well idk sir

Explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

the terms native american and american indian are used in the united states. what other term is used in canada?

IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

Although American Indian is wrong and its better to use Native American or Indigenous. In Canada some people prefer First Nations or First Peoples.

Explanation:

8 0

2 years ago

How could an embargo on trade change the economy of a country??

Akimi4 [234]

Putting an embargo on another country would most likely have a negative effect on both county's economies. This would mean they both lose a trading partner.

8 0

3 years ago

Strengths and weaknesses for Loyalist

lilavasa [31]

Answer:

Being well trained and having a disciplined force was a big advantage for the British. It gave the soldiers the mind set of not running from anything or towards anything. They listened to their head general and they followed the orders of what they were supposed to do.

Explanation:

4 0

2 years ago

Which is true about the Athenians?

Tresset [83]

Answer:

They grew rich as the result of the Delian league.

Explanation:

can i plz get Brainliest

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers