Answer: Threat
Explanation:
The threat is one of the important factor in the SWOT analysis that is basically used for analyzing the main causes of the damages in an organization, products and the venture. The threats can be defined as external or in a negative way.
The SWOT is stand for the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and the threats and these are the techniques for evaluating the four main aspects of the business.
According to the given question, the implementation of the new government regulations are reducing the availability of the raw materials and this is known as the external organization threat in the given SWOT analysis.
Therefore, Threat is the correct answer.
Answer: Please refer to Explanation.
Explanation:
Monopoly.
The 2 reasons why the monopoly’s marginal revenue will always be less than its price are;
a) Even though Monopolies have very large influence on the prices of goods and services they offer, for a Monopoly to sell more goods, they generally have to lower their prices. This will lead to a situation where Marginal Revenue, which is the additional revenue made per additional unit sold will be less than Price because additional revenue for a new unit will be less than the last one because prices are dropped .
b) A Monopoly's demand schedule is downward sloping. This means that demand rises as prices drop. As prices drop therefore, more goods will be sold but the marginal revenue will be less because prices had to be dropped to get an additional unit to be sold. That unit therefore will bring in less revenue than the last unit.
Perfectly Competitive Market
In such a market, the seller is a Price Taker. This means that sellers in this market do not sell at a price that they want but rather at a price the market has established to be the Equilibrium. This is because of the high competition in the market. Since they are all selling at the same price, this means that every additional revenue they get is the same as the price the market charges. This means that Price equals Marginal Revenue in this market.
Answer:
$995,745
Explanation:
PV = $0
PMT = $500
I/YR = 6
P/YR = 12
N = 40 x 12 = 480
your retirement account be in 40 years will be $995,745
Answer:
4
Explanation:
receivable turnover = net credit sales / average inventory
avarage iventory = ($761000 + $841000) / 2 = $801,000
$3,204,000 / $801,000 = 4
Answer:
Hi the demand for each product for this question is missing, however, i have provided step by step approach to solving the problem below .
Explanation:
First Calculate the contribution per unit of each product
A B C
Sales price $65.50 $57.50 $75.25
Less Total variable cost ($28.85) ($26.50) ($38.95
)
Less Direct material cost ($11.25) ($8.90) ($22.75)
Contribution $25.40 $22.10 $13.25
Calculate the contribution per limiting factor of each product and rank the products
<em>contribution per limiting factor = contribution per unit ÷ quantity per limiting factor per unit</em>
A B C
Contribution $25.40 $22.10 $13.25
Quantity of limiting factor 4.65 6.3 5.9
Contribution per limiting factor 5.46 3.51 2.25
Ranking 1 2 3
Allocate the limiting factor according to the limiting factor
The company will on produce Product A as this is the most profitable.
Contribution = $25.40
