Answer: b. excess supply of money is equal to the quantity demanded of money at a given interest rate.
Explanation:
Equilibrium in the money market takes is usually achieved when the quantity of money demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. The demand curve for money is used to illustrate the quantity of money demanded at a given interest rate. The demand curve for money usually sloped downward, what this tells us is that people would want to hold less of their wealth in the form of physical cash ( money ). When the interest rates on bonds and other alternative investments are way higher.
Answer:
$4,000
Explanation:
The difference between the face value of note and the issuance value of the note is discount. This discount is recorded and amortized over the note life to maturity. As the note is for 6 months and There are also six months from June 30, to December 31. So, all the Discount of $4,000 ($50,000-$46,000) will be recognized as Interest Income. This discount can be amortized and recognized as Interest Income on monthly basis or collectively at the year end.
Answer:
The correct answer is A. purchase inventory from vendors
Explanation:
The inventory is a detailed, orderly and valued relationship of the elements that make up the assets of a company or person at a given time. In the past, it was normal for inventories to be carried out by physical means (they were written on paper), but now they are usually kept in databases centrally to an entire company, even if there are companies or small stores that continue doing so with paper.
The inventory is:
-
detailed because the characteristics of each of the elements that make up the heritage are specified.
- ordered because it groups the assets in their corresponding accounts and the accounts in their assets.
- valued because the value of each asset is expressed in monetary units.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Debt = D ÷ (E + D)
= 0.8 ÷ (1 + 0.8)
= 0.4444
Now
Weight of equity = 1 - Debt
= 1 - 0.4444
= 0.5556
As per Dividend discount model
Price = Dividend in 1 year ÷ (cost of equity - growth rate)
40 = $2 ÷ (Cost of equity - 0.06)
Cost of equity = 11%
Cost of debt
K = N
Let us assume the par value be $1,000
Bond Price =∑ [(Annual Coupon) ÷ (1 + YTM)^k] + Par value ÷ (1 + YTM)^N
k=1
K =25
$804 =∑ [(7 × $1000 ÷ 100)/(1 + YTM ÷ 100)^k] + $1000 ÷ (1 + YTM ÷ 100)^25
k=1
YTM = 9
After tax cost of debt = cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 9 × (1 - 0.21)
= 7.11
WACC = after tax cost of debt × W(D) + cost of equity ×W(E)
= 7.11 × 0.4444 + 11 × 0.5556
= 9.27%
As we can see that the WACC is lower than the return so it should be undertake the expansion