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A spherical balloon is being deflated at a rate of 5 cubic centimeters per second. At what rate is the radius of the balloon cha

Dvinal [7]

Answer:

0.0048cm/s

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of the spherical balloon is expressed as;

$V = 4/3 \pi r^3\\$

dV/dt = dV/dr * dr/dt

Given

dV/dt = 5cm³/s

dV/dr = 4πr²

Since V = 972picm³

972π = 4/3πr³

972 = 4/3r³

4r³ = 972 * 3

r³ = (972 *3)/4

r³ = 729

r = ∛729

r = 9cm

dV/dr = 4π(9)²

dV/dr = 324π

dV/dt = dV/dr * dr/dt

5 = 324πdr/dt

dr/dt = 5/324π

dr/dt = 5/324(3.14)

dr/dt = 5/1017.36

dr/dt = 0.0048cm/s

5 0

2 years ago

What is the probability of spinning green?

professor190 [17]

0.25 because there is 4 colours and obviously red is 0.75 percent and green and blue can’t be lower than 0.5 cuz that’s for yellow and there’s no 0%

(That makes no sense but it’s 0.25%)

3 0

2 years ago

In a list of households, own homes and do not own homes. Five households are randomly selected from these households. Find the p

hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

The probability of success for this case would be:

$p =\frac{9}{15}= 0.6$ representing the proportion of homes that are own homes

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=15, p=0.6)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

$P(X=3)$

And uing the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=3)= 15C3 (0.6)^3 (1-0.6)^{15-3}= 0.00165$

Step-by-step explanation:

Adduming the following info: In a list of 15 households, 9 own homes and 6 do not own homes. Five households are randomly selected from these 15 households. Find the probability that the number of households in these 5 own homes is exactly 3.

Round your answer to four decimal places

P (exactly 3)=

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

The probability of success for this case would be:

$p =\frac{9}{15}= 0.6$ representing the proportion of homes that are own homes

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=15, p=0.6)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

$P(X=3)$

And uing the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=3)= 15C3 (0.6)^3 (1-0.6)^{15-3}= 0.00165$

4 0

2 years ago

What is the volume of the right triangular prism? Round to the nearest tenth.

Tatiana [17]

Answer:

613.8 meters cubed

Step-by-step explanation:

6.2x11x9=exactly 613.8 meters cubed

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A poker hand is a set of 5 cards randomly chosen from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of a (a) royal flush (ten, jack,

zysi [14]

Answer:

a) 0.000001539

b) 0.00001385

c) 0.0002401

d) 0.001441

e) 0.001966

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 52 deck of cards, and the hand of the poker is 5 set, then the total number of hands achievable would be

T = 52! / 5!(52 - 5)!

T = 52! / 5! 47 !

T = 2598560 possibilities.

a) There are 4 ways of getting a royal flush. So the probability of getting a royal flush is

4 / 2598560 =

0.000001539

b) There are 9 hands from the 5 card hands, and also, there are 4 possible suits. So then, the probability is

9 * 4 / 2598560 =

36 / 2598560 =

0.00001385

c) There are 13 possible ways to get a four of a kind, since there are 5 cards with the poker, the remaining would be taken from the 48 remaining cards, thus

13 * 48 / 2598560 =

624 / 2598560 =

0.0002401

d) 3 of a kind in conjunction with a pair is needed to form a full house. This 3 of a kind can be gotten from any 4 suits. Then again, the pair has two cards with the same face value. So,

4! / 2! (4 - 2)! =

4! / 2! 2! = 6

That means, there are 6 possible ways to get our needed suits. Then, the probability of getting a full house is

13 * 4 * 12 * 6 / 2598560 =

3744 / 2598560 =

0.001441

e) To get a flush, all the 5 cards in the hand needs to have the same suit. Now, there are 13 different types of cards with only 5 cards being in the hand, thus

13! / 5! (13 - 5)! =

13! / 5! 8! = 1287

Now, recall that the question specifically asked us not to include any straight. There are 10 straights that can be gotten, and thus, we subtract it.

1287 - 10 = 1277

Since there are 4 suits, the probability of getting a flush is

1277 * 4 / 2598560 =

5108 / 2598560 = 0.001966

5 0

3 years ago