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dimaraw [331]
3 years ago
10

Firm B Firm T Shares outstanding 4,800 1,800 Price per share $ 47 $ 20 Firm B has estimated that the value of the synergistic be

nefits from acquiring Firm T is $9,100. Firm T can be acquired for $22 per share in cash or by exchange of stock wherein B offers one of its shares for every two of T's shares. Are the shareholders of Firm T better off with the cash offer or the stock offer? Cash offer is better Share offer is better At what exchange ratio of B shares to T shares would the shareholders in T be indifferent between the two offers? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 4 decimal places, e.g., 32.1616.)
Business
1 answer:
zmey [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A. Share Offer Is Better

B. .4569

Explanation:

A. Based on the information given the shareholders of Firm T will be better off with the STOCK OFFER because cash offer is the amount of $22 per share.

B. Calculation to determine the exchange ratio of B shares to T shares

First step is to calculate the New shares created

New shares created = 1,800(1/2)

New shares created = 900 new shares

Second step is to calculate the value of the merged firm

Value of the merged firm= 4,800($47) + 1,800($20) + $9,100

Value of the merged firm= $270,700

Third step is to calculate the price per share of the merged firm

Price= $270,700/(4,800 + 900)

Price= $270,700/5,700

Price= $47.49

Fourth step is to calculate the Equity offer value

Equity offer value = (1/2)($47.49)

Equity offer value = $23.75 per share

Fifth step is to calculate the post merger share price

Value of the merged firm= $270,700

Shares in new firm = 4,800 + 1,800x

Hence:

Post merger share price:

P= $270,700/(4,800 + 1,800x)

Sixth step

For the target firm’s shareholders to be indifferent which means they have to receive the same wealth

Hence;

1,800(x)P= 1,800($22)

Let solve this equation for P

P= $22/x

Now Let Combine the two equations

$270,700/(4,800 + 1,800x) = $22/x

x= .4569

Seventh step is to calculate the NPV

NPV = 1,800($20) + $9,100 – 1,800($22)

NPV = $5,500

Eight step is to calculate the Share price

Share price = [4,800($47) + $5,500]/4,800

Share price = $48.15

Now let calculate the Exchange ratio

Exchange ratio = $22/$48.15

Exchange ratio = .4569

Therefore the exchange ratio of B shares to T shares that the shareholders in T would be indifferent between the two offers is .4569

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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5 0
3 years ago
What accounted for the tremendous rise in the profits of the american financial industry, from less than 10 percent of total bus
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3 years ago
Your uncle lends you $2,000 less $100 (interest at 5 percent), and you receive $1,900. Use the APR formula to find the true annu
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

APR =5.263%

Explanation:

Computation of the true annual percentage rate

Using the APR formula to find the true annual percentage rate

APR=(2 × n × I) / [P × (N + 1)]

Hence;

APR= (2 × 1 × $100) / [$1,900 × (1 + 1)]

APR=$200/($1,900×2)

APR=$200/$3,800

APR= 0.05263 ×100

APR =5.263%

Therefore the true annual percentage rate using the APR formula will be 5.263%

7 0
3 years ago
Titan Mining Corporation has 6.3 million shares of common stock outstanding, 220,000 shares of 3.6 percent preferred stock outst
Shkiper50 [21]

The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

a.

We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:

Market value of debt = MVD = 105,000*($1,000)*(1.07) = $25,750,000

Market value of preferred cost = MVP = 220,000*($83) = $18,260,000

Market value of equity = MVE = 6,300,000*($73) = $459,900,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $25,750,000 + 18,260,000+ 459,900,000

V = $503,910,000

b.

So, the market value weights of the company's financing are:

D/V = $25,750,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0511

P/V = $18,260,000/$503,910,000 = 0.0362

E/V = $459,900,000/$503,910,000 = 0.9127

For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate.

First, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

RE = .031 + 1.15(.071)

RE = 0.1030, or 10.03%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:

P0 = $1,070 = $26.50(PVIFAR%,34) + $1,000(PVIFR%,34)

R = 2.228%

YTM = 2.228% × 2

YTM = 4.46%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

RD = (1 - .22)(.0446)

RD = .0348, or 3.48%

The cost of preferred stock is:

RP = $3.60/$73

RP = .0493, or 4.93%

Now we can calculate the WACC as:

WACC = 0.0511(.0348) + 0.0362(.0493) + 0.9127(.1003)

WACC =0.0933, or 9.33%

Hence, The firm’s market value capital structure is $503,910,000.

The rate the firm should use to discount the project’s cash flows is 9.33%.

Learn more about equity valuation:

brainly.com/question/17191274

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Answer:

C

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