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charle [14.2K]
3 years ago
13

Need help will mark brainiest thank you

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nadusha1986 [10]3 years ago
6 0

a. 1^5 = 1 × 1 × 1 × 1 × 1 = 1

b. 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2^5 = 32

c. 20^3 = 20 × 20 × 20 = 8.000

d. 7 × 7 × 7 × 7 = 7^4 = 2.401

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Simplify 5/8-(-7/2)
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

33/8

see the pic for the steps

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
What is the answer for 63 * 4
lesya692 [45]

Hello


Answer:

15752961 or 252

Step-by-step explanation:

You would just multiply 63x63x63x63 or multiply 63 4 times

or

6x4 is 252

Hope this helps

plz mark me as brainliest

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the acceleration
malfutka [58]

Answer:

2.2

Step-by-step explanation:

You divide 7.92 by 3.6.

5 0
3 years ago
The sum of 3 consecutive integers is 270. what is the second number in the sequence
lora16 [44]
Alright, so if the first number is x, the second number is y, and the third number is z, we have x+y+z=270. Next, since we know that x=y-1 since it is less than y by one and z=y+1, we have y-1+y+y+1=y+y+y=3y=270. Dividing both sides by 3, we get y=90
4 0
3 years ago
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