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Tatiana [17]
3 years ago
10

2 tens 1 one x 10 can you tell my the answer

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dominik [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

the answer is 210

Step-by-step explanation:

10×10=20+1=21, 21×10=210

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What is the value represented by the digit 8 after 7,824 is divided by 10? help PLEASE 15 Point
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer: 80

Step-by-step explanation:

7824/10 = 782.4

The value represented by 8 is 80 or 8 tens.

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05 - O gráfico a seguir mostra a prevalência de obesidade da
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I don’t know spanish sorry
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Describe how the graph of g(x) is related to the parent function f(x).
Nataly [62]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Given f(x) then f(x) + c is a vertical translation of f(x)

• If c > 0 then a shift up of c units

• If c < 0 then a shift down of c units

Here f(x) = 4x and g(x) = 4x - 2

That is g(x) is the graph of f(x) shifted 2 units down

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4 years ago
PLZ RESPOND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
lyudmila [28]

the coordinates of point f is B)7,-5

7 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
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