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Snowcat [4.5K]
3 years ago
7

Which table shows a linear relationship

Mathematics
2 answers:
Furkat [3]3 years ago
8 0
The answer to the problem is B
drek231 [11]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

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The time between telephone calls to a cable television service call center follows an exponential distribution with a mean of 1.
Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

0.52763 is the probability that the time between the next two calls will be 54 seconds or​ less.

0.19285 is the probability that the time between the next two calls will be greater than 118.5 ​seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information in the question:

The time between telephone calls to a cable television service call center follows an exponential distribution with a mean of 1.2 minutes.

The distribution function can be written as:

f(x) = \lambda e^{-\lambda x}\\\text{where lambda is the parameter}\\\\\text{Mean} = \mu = \displaystyle\frac{1}{\lambda}\\\\\Rightarrow 1.2 = \frac{1}{\lambda}\\\\\lambda = 0.84 \\f(x) = 0.84 e^{0.84 x}

The probability for exponential distribution is given as:

P( x \leq a) = 1 - e^{\frac{-a}{\mu}}\\\\P(a \leq x \leq b) = e^{\frac{-a}{\mu} -\frac{-b}{\mu}}

a) P( time between the next two calls will be 54 seconds or​ less)

P( x \leq 0.9)\\= 1 - e^{\frac{\frac{-54}{60}}{1.2}} = 0.52763

0.52763 is the probability that the time between the next two calls will be 54 seconds or​ less.

b) P(time between the next two calls will be greater than 118.5 ​seconds)

p( x > \frac{118.5}{60}) = P(x > 1.975)\\\\ = 1 - P(x \leq 1.975) \\\\= 1 -1+ e^{\frac{-1.975}{1.2}}\\\\= 0.19285

0.19285 is the probability that the time between the next two calls will be greater than 118.5 ​seconds.

6 0
3 years ago
Customers at a gas station pay with a credit card (A), debit card (B), or cash (C). Assume that successive customers make indepe
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

Mean = 20

Variance = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- Let X be the number of customers paying with a debit card.  X has the binomial distribution with n = 100 trials and success probability p = 0.2  

- In general, if X has the binomial distribution with (n) trials and a success probability of (p) then:

                 P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

                 for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n  

                 P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.

- The probability mass function is derived by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.  

- Or, in other words, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.

                  X ~ Binomial( n = 100 , p = 0.2 )

- The mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 20  

- The variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 16  

7 0
3 years ago
Related subtraction fact for 7+6=13
Svet_ta [14]
13-6=7 or 13-7=6 Hope this helps you
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
C.<br> In (MN) = In M + In N, for M&gt; 0 and N&gt; 0<br> True or false
melisa1 [442]
That statement is true
8 0
3 years ago
10
alukav5142 [94]
The answer to that would be many
8 0
3 years ago
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