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3 years ago

Help, please in this problem

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nikolay [14]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

x=9.768

y=6.972

Step-by-step explanation:

For this problem we have to use the trig relationships of cos and sin to figure out the lengths. Cos is equal to adjacent/hypotenuse so we can set it as x/r=.814 and since r is equal to 12 we can do 12 times .814 to get x.

We do a similar process for sin but sin is equal to opposite/hypotenuse so we can set up the equation y/r=.581 and we simply multiply both sides by 12 to get 12*.581 to get y.

Also for future reference adjacent and hypotenuse are based on the angle at use, since ∅ is on the bottom left x is the adjacent side and y is the opposite side.

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Help me please I literally don’t understand any of this. I know it’s easy too.

Ber [7]

Holigina, this is the solution:

Let's recall that √x = x ^(1/2)

Therefore,

√x√x = x ^(1/2 + 1/2) = x^1 (We sum the exponents of the same base)

The correct answer is C. 1

5 0

1 year ago

One number is 3 less than a second number. Twice the second number is 12 more than 3 times the first. Find the two numbers.

Verdich [7]

6 and 3, 3 and 6, or 2 and 6

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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP IM SO CLOSE TO BEING DONE I JUST NEED THESE ANSWERS

Artist 52 [7]

Answer: 12

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee

prohojiy [21]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And using the complement rule we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

7 0

3 years ago

Value of Trig functions questions

77julia77 [94]

In the given quadrant, sine and cosine are negative and tangent is positive.

cos(θ) = -√(1 - (-5/8)²) = (-√39)/8

tan(θ) = sin(θ)/cos(θ) = 5/√39 = (5√39)/39

csc(θ) = 1/sin(θ) = -8/5

sec(θ) = 1/cos(θ) = -8/√39 = (-8√39)/39

cot(θ) = 1/tan(θ) = (√39)/5

4 0

3 years ago