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bija089 [108]
3 years ago
15

The N71-90 virus will give an infected person a mild rash on their arms once the person has 1 billion of the virus cells in thei

r body. After an initial infection with just one cell, each virus cell will divide into two cells every four hours. After 30 divisions there are 1,073,741,824 cells and the rash starts. Once the rash starts, the immune system kicks in and kills all of the virus cells within an hour. The number of virus cells in the body can be determined using the function below.
v(h)=2\frac{h}{4}

In this function, h is the number of hours after infection. If Jolene is infected by one virus cell, how many virus cells will she have after 8 divisions?

A. 4
B. 256
C. 512
D. 8
Mathematics
2 answers:
Naya [18.7K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

  • B. 256

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Given function:</u>

  • v(h) = 2^(h/4)

<u>It can be rewritten as:</u>

  • v(d) = 2^d, where d- number of divisions

<u>If number of divisions is 8, then:</u>

  • v(8) = 2^8 = 256 virus cells

Correct choice is B

salantis [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Solution given:

v(h)={2}^{\frac{h}{4}}

we can write it as

v(d)={2}^{d}

now

v(8)={2}^{8}=256 virus cells will she have after 8 divisions.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
For a binomial process, the probability of success is 40 percent and the number of trials is 5. Find the standard deviation.
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

Sd(X) =\sqrt{1.2}=1.095

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.4)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

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The mean for the binomial distribution is given by:

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And the variance is given by:

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