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zhenek [66]
3 years ago
10

Which marginal frequency is the greatest?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Artist 52 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Students who do sport related activities

Step-by-step explanation:

Total Sport: 68

Total seventh graders: 63

Total non-sport: 62

Total eighth graders: 57

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I need help with this question
k0ka [10]
F(x) = 1 / (x - 2)...when x = 4
f(4) = 1 / (4 - 2)
f(4) = 1/2 <==

f(x) = 1 / (x - 2)...when f(x) = 1
1 = 1 / (x - 2) ...multiply both sides by (x - 2) eliminating it on the right
1(x - 2) = 1
x - 2 = 1
x = 1 + 2
x = 3 <==
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
4 years ago
If a common logarithm is written without a base, what base should be used in evaluating it?
Rzqust [24]
If there isn't a base, the base is 10 :)
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3 = q/11 i need it real quick
makkiz [27]

Answer:

q=33

Step-by-step explanation:

So we have:

3=\frac{q}{11}

Multiply both sides by 11:

11(3)=(11)\frac{q}{11}

The right side cancels:

11(3)=q

Multiply the left:

33=q

Thus, the value of q is 33.

7 0
3 years ago
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AYUDAAA PORFAVOOOOOOR!!
galben [10]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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