Answer: P(x ≥ 1) = 0.893
Step-by-step explanation:
We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as
P(x = r) = nCr × p^r × q^(n - r)
Where
x represent the number of successes.
p represents the probability of success.
q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.
n represents the number of trials or sample.
From the information given,
p = 36% = 36/100 = 0.36
q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.36
q = 0.64
n = 5
Therefore,
P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)
P(x = 0) = 5C0 × 0.36^0 × 0.64^(5 - 0)
P(x = 0) = 1 × 1 × 0.107
P(x = 0) = 0.107
P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.107 = 0.893
You need to find the amount subject to withholding, subtracting from the weekly salary the amount for one withholding allowance for weekly salaries, which is 77.90$:
830 - 77.90 = 752.1 $.
Then, look in the Fed Tax tables (
http://www.opers.ok.gov/Websites/opers/images/pdfs/2016-Fed-Tax-Tables.pdf ) for a married person with a weekly payroll.
You previously found an amount of 752.1 which is greater than 521 but less than 1613$: therefore the income tax to withhold is 35.70$ + 15% of excess over $521.
Therefore, calculate the income tax due: 35.70 + (752.1 - 521) × 15 ÷ 100 = 70.37$
The total amount of income tax that will be withheld is 70.37$
Answer:
5006 is and 4896
Step-by-step explanation:
math is the best letsgoooo
