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Mashcka [7]
3 years ago
9

Review each of the investment opportunities provided by Earll Investments and Pima Financial Trading. In at least two to three p

aragraphs, write an analysis of these opportunities that answers the following questions. What are the true risks of each investment, and do the companies accurately describe these risks? What are the potential returns of each investment, and do the companies accurately describe these returns? Based on the evidence available to you, which investment opportunity is more likely to be fraudulent?​
Business
1 answer:
irga5000 [103]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Investment Opportunity 1 has a few risks.Though it invests in stocks, it makes consistent profits. It lacks volatility because managers carefully select stocks with long-term earning potential. Investment Opportunity 2 risks are related to changing interest rates, which can cause bonds to make less money for bondholders. Also, it may be affected by inflation, and it carries the risk of default: if a city or county government fails to make its bond payments, then the bondholder loses money. Both companies tell you the risks, and they have the same level of it. Investment Opportunity 1 has three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years.The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Investment Opportunity 2 also provided three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years. The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Both say the potential returns of each investment, but investment opportunity 1 hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years is not as steady as investment opportunity 2. Investment Opportunity 2 is the fraudulent one because its percentage of return is better than investment opportunity 1. Both are with large companies that are almost just alike but investment opportunity 2 has a better rates of return. The first one serves thousands of customers and specializes in managing stocks and mutual funds. The second firm serves thousands of customers, and it specializes in managing mutual funds that invest in bonds.

Explanation: Hope this helps this is what I used for <u>Edge 2020</u> ^-^. Also I do not take credit for this answer, but I feel like this is a very well and detailed answer.

You might be interested in
Doubling the circumference of an oil pipeline more than doubles the volume of oil that can be pumped through. This strategy is c
Alika [10]

Answer:

Economies of scale

Explanation:

Economies of scale is described as the cost benefit or advantage which is experienced through the firm, when it rises the output level. Under economies of scale, the fixed costs did not vary or change with decreases or increases in the units of the production volume and the variable costs are dependent with rise in the output.

So, in this case, when the circumference is doubled of the oil pipeline, more than the volume doubles. This technique is selected through the large firms or business as it will result in the economies of scale.

4 0
3 years ago
(-2a+5)(3a+4)<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28%20-%202a%20%2B%205%29%283a%20%2B%204%29" id="TexFormula1" title="( - 2a +
vichka [17]
Simplifying
(2a + 5)(3a + -4) = 0

Reorder the terms:
(5 + 2a)(3a + -4) = 0

Reorder the terms:
(5 + 2a)(-4 + 3a) = 0

Multiply (5 + 2a) * (-4 + 3a)
(5(-4 + 3a) + 2a * (-4 + 3a)) = 0
((-4 * 5 + 3a * 5) + 2a * (-4 + 3a)) = 0
((-20 + 15a) + 2a * (-4 + 3a)) = 0
(-20 + 15a + (-4 * 2a + 3a * 2a)) = 0
(-20 + 15a + (-8a + 6a2)) = 0

Combine like terms: 15a + -8a = 7a
(-20 + 7a + 6a2) = 0

Solving
-20 + 7a + 6a2 = 0

Solving for variable 'a'.

Factor a trinomial.
(-5 + -2a)(4 + -3a) = 0

Subproblem 1
Set the factor '(-5 + -2a)' equal to zero and attempt to solve:

Simplifying
-5 + -2a = 0

Solving
-5 + -2a = 0

Move all terms containing a to the left, all other terms to the right.

Add '5' to each side of the equation.
-5 + 5 + -2a = 0 + 5

Combine like terms: -5 + 5 = 0
0 + -2a = 0 + 5
-2a = 0 + 5

Combine like terms: 0 + 5 = 5
-2a = 5

Divide each side by '-2'.
a = -2.5

Simplifying
a = -2.5
Subproblem 2
Set the factor '(4 + -3a)' equal to zero and attempt to solve:

Simplifying
4 + -3a = 0

Solving
4 + -3a = 0

Move all terms containing a to the left, all other terms to the right.

Add '-4' to each side of the equation.
4 + -4 + -3a = 0 + -4

Combine like terms: 4 + -4 = 0
0 + -3a = 0 + -4
-3a = 0 + -4

Combine like terms: 0 + -4 = -4
-3a = -4

Divide each side by '-3'.
a = 1.333333333

Simplifying
a = 1.333333333
Solution
a = {-2.5, 1.333333333}
6 0
3 years ago
Rienzi Farms grows sugar cane and soybeans on its 600 acres of land. An acre of soybeans requires 3 hours to plant and brings in
mezya [45]

Answer:

133 acres of sugar cane

and 300 of soybean provide a profit of $ 733,000

Explanation:

We setup the fromulas and use excel solver:

labor hours:  3 x sugar acres + 4 x soybean <= 1,600

profit  = 1,000 x sugar acres + 2,000 soybean

with the restriction soybean <= 300

                 SOLVER  

              acres          hours             PROFIT

sugar cane 133  x 3 = 399       x 1,000 =    133,000

soybeans 300  x 4 = 1,200           x 2,000 =<u>  600,000  </u>

                                                  TOTAL           733,000

6 0
3 years ago
Cash Flow Equivalences. Southwestern Moving and Storage wants to have enough money to purchase a new tractor-trailer in 5 years
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

They must set aside $65,494.95 at the end of year 4.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Southwestern Moving and Storage wants to have enough money to purchase a new tractor-trailer in 5 years for $290,000. If the company sets aside $100,000 in year 2 and $75,000 in year 3.

Interest rate= 9%

<u>We will assume that the money gets set aside at the end of each period.</u>

First, we need to calculate the accumulated money of the first two investments using the following formula:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

Year 2: FV= 100,000*(1.09)^3= 129,503

Year 3: FV= 75,000*(1.09)^2= 89,107.5

Total= $218,610.5

Difference= 290,000 - 218,610.5= 71,389.5

Final value= 71,389.5

We need to find the present value:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 71,389.5/(1.09)= 65,494.95

7 0
3 years ago
A cash register tape reflected total sales equaling $100, but the cash in the cash register drawer equaled $105. Review the stat
Zolol [24]

Answer:

The answer is given below;

Explanation:

The $ 5 collected will be treated as miscellaneous revenue.The cash over and short account will be credited for $5.

As the cash receipts are $ 105 and sales revenue is $100.The difference amount will be treated as miscellaneous revenue.

The journal entry will be;

Cash   Dr.$105

Sales Revenue    Cr.$100

Miscellaneous revenue Cr.$5

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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