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storchak [24]
4 years ago
10

During 2018, LeBron Corporation accepts the following notes receivable. a. On April 1, LeBron provides services to a customer on

account. The customer signs a four-month, 9% note for $5,300. b. On June 1, LeBron lends cash to one of the company’s executives by accepting a six-month, 10% note for $9,300. c. On November 1, LeBron accepts payment for prior services by having a customer with a past due account receivable sign a three-month, 8% note for $4,300. Required: Record the acceptance of each of the notes receivable. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
Business
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

a. Short term notes receivable A/c Dr $5,300

              To Service revenue A/c                        $5,300

(Being the service is provided based on the notes receivable)

b.  Short term notes receivable A/c Dr $9,300

              To Cash A/c                        $9,300

(Being cash is paid)

c.  Short term notes receivable A/c Dr $4,300

              To Account receivable A/c                        $4,300

(Being 3-month note receivable is accepted which is signed by the customer)

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A welding company specializes in custom steel frames and uses job costing to account for its operations. The following informati
nalin [4]

Answer: $21 per direct labor hour.

Explanation:

Based on the information given in the question, the predetermined overhead rate that is used will be calculated as:

= Manufacturing overhead / Direct labor

where,

Manufacturing overhead = 5460

Direct labor = 3900/15 = 260 hours

Therefore, predetermined overhead rate:

= 5460/260

= $21 per direct labor hour.

6 0
3 years ago
Great Lakes Packing has two bond issues outstanding. The first issue has a coupon rate of 3.50 percent, a par value of $1,000 pe
katrin [286]

Answer:

2.9652%

Explanation:

to determine the cost of debt we must use the FMV of the bonds plus the YTM:

first bond:

FMV = 1.09 x $1,000 = $1,090 x 3,600 bonds = $3,924,000

YTM = {C + [(F - P)/n]} / [(F + P)/2] = {17.5 + [(1000 - 1090)/16]} / [(1000 + 1090)/2] = (17.5 - 5.625) / 1045 = 1.136% x 2 = 2.27% annual

second bond:

FMV = 0.95 x $2,000 = $1,900 x 3,950 bonds = $7,505,000

YTM = {C + [(F - P)/n]} / [(F + P)/2] = {59.4 + [(2000 - 1900)/42]} / [(2000 + 1900)/2] = (59.4 + 2.38) / 1950 = 3.168% x 2 = 6.34% annual

total debt = $3,924,000 + $7,505,000 = $11,429,000

weighted average after tax cost of debt:

{($3,924,000/$11,429,000 x 2.27%) + ($7,505,000/$11,429,000 x 6.34%)} x (1 - 0.40) = (0.779% + 4.163%) x 0.6 = 4.942% x 0.6 = 2.9652%

6 0
4 years ago
There exists a(n)
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

Direct, upward sloping

Explanation:

Supply refers to the quantities of goods or services that firms are willing to sell to the markets are a specific price. As per the law of supply, an increase in prices leads to an increase in the quantity supplied. Therefore, the relationship between the price and quantity supplied is direct. Firms prefer to supply more products to the markets at higher prices because they will make more profits.

The supply curve is a graphical presentation of the relationship between price and quantity supplied.  The supply curve is upward sloping. It originates from the bottom left corner, showing how quantities vary along the curve at different prices. Quantity supplied increases as the price rise.

7 0
3 years ago
Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods
eimsori [14]

This is the full question:

At the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a cost of $40,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to remain useful for eight years (5,000,000 miles) and to have a residual value of $5,000,000. Air Asia expects the plane to be flow 1,200,000 the first year and 1,400,000 the second year.

1) Compute second-year (2017) depreciation expense using the following methods

a. Straight-line

b. Units-of-production

c. Double-declining-balance

2) Calculate the balance in Accumulated Depreciation at the end of the second year for all three methods:

Answer:

Explanation:

1)a) Straight-line

Depreciable base = Cost of the Asset - Residual Value

                              = $40,000,000 - $5,000,000

                              = $35,000,000

Depreciation expense per year = Depreciable base / years of useful life

                                                     = $35,000,000 / 8

                                                     = $4,375,000

The depreciation expense for the second year is = $4,375,000

                                                                                       

b) Units-of-production

Units of Production Rate = Depreciable Base / Units Over Useful Life

                                        = $35,000,000 / 5,000,000 miles

                                        = 7

Depreciation Expense = Units of Production Rate x Actual Units Produced

                                      = 7 x 1,400,000 miles in the second year

                                      = $9,800,000

c. Double-declining-balance

Double-declining balance = 2 x (Asset Cost - Residual Value ) / Useful Life of the Asset

                                           = 2 x ($40,000,000 - $5,000,000) / 8

                                           = $8,750,000

2) a) Straight-line Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the previous answer by two = $4,375,000 x 2

                                                                              = $8,750,000

2) b) Units-of-production Accumulated depreciation

First we find the depreciation expense for the first year using the same formula as above

= 7 x 1,200,000

= $8,400,000

Finally we simply add up depreciation expense for the two years

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

= $18,200,000

2) c) Double-declining-balance Accumulated depreciation

We simply multiply the first result by two = $8,750,000 x 2

                                                                    = $17,500,000

                                       

                           

5 0
4 years ago
the policy loan provision means that a. an individual can take out a loan on his term policy. b. the death benefit will be incre
Alenkasestr [34]

According to the policy loan clause, the policy owner may borrow any sum up to the policy's cash value. As a result, choice (C) is the best way to respond.

<h3>What is policy loan?</h3>

A policy loan is given out by an insurance provider and is secured by the cash value of the borrower's life insurance policy. A "life insurance loan" is another name for it. They used to be renowned for having cheap interest rates, but that isn't necessarily the case now.

Even though they have limitations, policy loans typically provide easy access to money. When a universal or whole life insurance policy has built up cash value, policy loans may be taken out.

Hence, option (C) is the accurate one.

Learn more about policy loans, from:

brainly.com/question/14971100

#SPJ1

5 0
1 year ago
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