The absolute value of a real number is a positive value of the number. Which means that the absolute value is the distance from zero of the number line. However, that of the complex numbers is the distance from the origin to the point in a complex plane.
First, let's make these two into equations.
The first plan has an initial fee of $40 and costs an additional $0.16 per mile driven.
Our equation would then be
C = 40 + 0.16m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
The second plan has an initial fee of $51 and costs an additional $0.11 per mile driven.
So, the equation is
C = 51 + 0.11m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
Now, your question seems to be asking for one mileage for both, equalling one cost. I would go through all the steps I've taken to try and find this for you, but it would probably take hours to type out and read. In short, I'm not entirely sure that an answer like that is possible in this situation, simply because of the large difference in the initial fee of the two plans, along with the sparse common multiples between the two mileage costs.
F(-1) = 2(-1)^2 + 8(-1)
= 2(1) + (-8)
= -6
Answer:
30,000 thousands make 30 million
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve by dividing 30 million by 1,000