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levacccp [35]
3 years ago
8

The graph of the function f(x) = ax^2 + bx + c has vertex at (0, 2) and passes through the point

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ann [662]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to use vertex form of a quadratic to solve this.

Consider the vertex to be (h,k)

Another way of representing a quadratic is in "vertex form":

f(x) = a(x-h)^2+k

Now all you have to do is solve for a.  You know that the vertex is (0,2) and you have know the point of (1,8).  Now, all you have to do is plug in these values and solve for a.

8 = a(1-0)^2+2\\8=a(1)^2+2\\8=a+2\\a=6

Now you know the equation is f(x) = 6(x-0)^2+2 , but you need it in quadratic form.  All you have to do is solve is distribute the 6:

6x^2+2

You get:

a = 6

b = 0

c = 2

Please mark this as brainliest if it satisfies your question

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3( x + 4y + 6) - 2(x + 8y + 3).​
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

x-4y+12

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
A migrating whale is traveling at an average speed of 5.4 kilometers per hour. How far will the whale travel in 18 hours at this
zaharov [31]
97.2 miles just multiply

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      18
    _____
    97.2 Remember, if there is a number behind the decimal point make sure to put a decimal point  behind it in the answer
5 0
3 years ago
What is the least number of colors you need to correct color in the sections of these pictures so that no two touching sections
Kobotan [32]

You would assume that in this figure, the number of colored sections with which are not colored with respect to a " touching " colored section, would be half of the total colored sections. However that is not the case, the sections are not alternating as they still meet at a common point. After all, it notes no two touching sections, not adjacent sections. Their is no equation to calculate this requirement with respect to the total number of sections.

Let's say that we take one triangle as the starting. This triangle will be the start of a chain of other triangles that have no two touching sections, specifically 7 triangles. If a square were to be this starting shape, there are 5 shapes that have no touching sections, 3 being a square, the other two triangles. This is presumably a lower value as a square occupies two times as much space, but it also depends on the positioning. Therefore, the least number of colored sections you can color in the sections meeting the given requirement, is 5 sections for this first figure.

Respectively the solution for this second figure is 5 sections as well.

7 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!!!<br> will mark brainliest!!!!!
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

fx =1; then fx =2; then fx =4

Step-by-step explanation:

then plug the coordinates in as x is horizontal bar in top right then the fx

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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