Answer:
If I dont get 5 stars u guys hate kobe bryant
Step-by-step explanation:
d
Answer:
Check the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
where the letter D is the diagonal matrix with diagonal entries λ1,…,λn. Now let's assume V is invertible, that is, this particular given eigenvectors are linearly independent, you get M=VDV−1.
Kindly check the attached image below to see the step by step explanation to the question above.
Answer:
940
Step-by-step explanation:
188
<u>× 5</u>
940
--------------------------------------------------------
8 * 5 = 40
Carry the 4 to the next 8
8 * 5 = 40
Add the 4 to the 40
40 + 4 = 48
Carry the 4 to the 1
1 * 5 = 5
Add the 4
5 + 9
= 940
*Hope this helps .^.*
Answer:
The answer is 41
Step-by-step explanation:
(35 + 7) (6 - 5)
(42) × (1) = 41
Thus, The answer is 41
<u>-TheUnknownScientist</u>
Answer:A for the first one and C for the second one
Step-by-step explanation: