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Butoxors [25]
3 years ago
8

Stuart throws a biased coin 10 times.

Mathematics
1 answer:
blondinia [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Prasha's result is better as she tossed the coin the most times.

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How long would it to drive 8.5 miles at 22 miles mile per hour?
Vitek1552 [10]
Time = Distance / Speed     
T = 8.5 miles/ 22 miles = 0.3863

4 0
3 years ago
Find the quotient −40÷20.
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Item 5 A farmer plants corn and wheat on a 180-acre farm. The farmer wants to plant three times as many acres of corn as wheat.
valina [46]

Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:

180/4 is 45 so you could say the farmer plants 135 Acers of corn and only 45 of wheat

3x+y=180  

Hope this helped.

8 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
4 years ago
What is the true solution to 2 In 4x= 2 In 8?
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

2In(4x)=2In(8)

determine the defined range

2In(4x)=2In(8) , x is greather than 0

divide both sides by 2

In(4x)=In(8)

set the arguments equal

4x=8

divide both sides by 4

x=2, x is greater than 0

x=2

6 0
4 years ago
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