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BabaBlast [244]
2 years ago
14

Technology has made it possible for software to replace that

Business
1 answer:
Komok [63]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Mid-level employees

Explanation:

A p e x

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Monika's gift barn has cash of $316, accounts receivable of $687, accounts payable of $709, and inventory of $2,108. what is the
kondaur [170]
Given:
Cash = $316
Accounts receivable = $687
Accounts payable = $709  (Liabilities)
Inventory = $2,108 (Assets)

Total assets = Cash + Receivables  
                    = 316 + 687 = $1,003
Liabilities = $709

By definition, the quick ratio is
QR = (Assets - Inventory) / Liabilities
      = (1003 - 2108)/709
      = -1.5585

This means that the gift barn is over-leveraged and struggling to grow.

Answer: -1.56 
3 0
3 years ago
If gdp is $20 trillon, how many years will it take for gdp to increase to $40 trillion if annual growth is 10 percent?
ElenaW [278]

It will take 7 years.

Given GDP is $20 trillion and increased GDP is $40 trillion.

Gross domestic product (GDP) is the standard measure of  value added generated by the country's production of goods and services over a certain time period. GDP is the total monetary or market worth of all completed products and services produced within a country's boundaries in a certain time period.

As such, it also accounts for the money generated by such output, as well as the overall amount spent on final products and services (less imports).

Time take to reach $40 trillion is to be found.

Formula to find the time taken to reach $40 trillion  is given below:

F = P *(1+i) ^t

Here,

F = 40,

P = 20,

I = 10%

Now put the values in the formula given above.

F = 0.1040 = 20 × (1+0.10) ^t(1.10)^t

  = 40 / 20

  = 2

Taking log both sides t = log 2 / log 1.10  

                                    = 7.27 yrs or 7 yrs

Therefore, it will take 7 years.

To know more about GDP click here:

brainly.com/question/1383956

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
On January 1, Year 1, the Hoverman Corporation made amendments to its defined benefit pension plan, resulting in $150,000 of pas
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

a)

In IFRS according to IAS 19 all past service cost is recognized in the net income in the period in which amendment (change) is made by entity for defined benefit pension, it does not matter what is the status of the employees who will benefit the change. So in Year 1 $150000 will be expended completely and in subsequent years the amount is $0

Year 1 =$150000

Subsequent years= $0

b) In US GAAP the past service cost is recorded in Accumulated other comprehensive income in the year of amendment. It is amortized over the future working life of the participants.

Year 1 is year of adoption hence $0 is amortized because $150000 is included in Accumulated other comprehensive income.

Subsequent years: (150000/10=15000) $15000 will be amortized for each year for 10 years.

3 0
3 years ago
A risk of marketing myopia is that sellers pay more attention to
vitfil [10]

The correct answer is:   [D]:

________________________________________________

        " their products than to customer needs. "

________________________________________________

Hope this helps!

        Best wishes!

________________________________________________

5 0
3 years ago
Two employers pay a wage of $10 an hour. Employer A is a monopsony while Employer B hires in a competitive labor market. Both fi
defon

Answer:

It will cost employer A more to hire another worker

5 0
3 years ago
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