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3 years ago

Which of the following cannot be shown on a production possibilities graph?

2 answers:

5 0

I believe the answer is: the allocation method

production possibilities graph could only include the factors that can be projected after doing combination of various products' production.
Allocation method only play role in the technique that can be used to produce the products and cannot be considered as data projection from the production

arlik [135]3 years ago

5 0

The right answer for the question that is being asked and shown above is that: "the allocation method." The way that it cannot be shown on a production possibilities graph is that through the allocation method

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Tax Savings. John and Cheryl just borrowed $30,000 on a home equity line of credit. The interest rate for the loan is 6.75% for

Sauron [17]

Answer:

$378

Explanation:

Interest expenses in current year = Amount of borrowing*Interest rate*8 month/12 months

Interest expenses in current year = $30,000 * 6.75% * 8/12

Interest expenses in current year = $1,350

Tax saving on interest expenses = Interest expenses * Tax rate

Tax saving on interest expenses = $1,350 * 28%

Tax saving on interest expenses = $378

So, their tax savings for the first year ending December 31 will be $378.

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3 years ago

Ethical dilemmas usually have clear right or wrong answers. True False

borishaifa [10]

The correct answer should be false.

8 0

3 years ago

Your grandparents would like to establish a trust fund that will pay you and your heirs $215,000 per year forever with the first

Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

They should invest $5,119,047.619 today.

Explanation:

The trust fund will pay a fixed amount forever thus it is a perpetuity. The value of perpetuity or Price of perpetuity is the amount that the perpetuity is worth in today's terms based on the cash flows it will generate in future.

The formula for the value or price of perpetuity is,

P0 or V = Cash Flow / r

Thus,

P0 or V = 215000 / 0.04 = $5,119,047.619

7 0

3 years ago

A good is excludable if: a) Those who are unwilling or unable to pay for the good do not obtain its benefits. b) It is not possi

N76 [4]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Those who are unwilling or unable to pay for the good do not obtain its benefits.

Explanation:

The excludability feature of goods does not allow individuals to have access to them without having paid for them. Thus, non-excludable goods are those that no one cannot prevent its use. Private goods (clothing, vehicles, houses) are excludable but they are also considered rival goods since when one person uses it another individual cannot consume the goods.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Instructions: Please make sure that you show all your work when solving the problems. Feel free to make any assumptions whenever

My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information:

The current price = $\dfrac{Dividend(D_o) \times (1+ Growth \ rate) }{\text{Cost of capital -Growth rate}}$

$15 = \dfrac{0.50 \times (1+ Growth rate)}{8\%-Growth rate}$

$15 \times (8 -Growth \ rate) = 0.50 +(0.50 \times growth \ rate)$

$1.20 - (15 \times Growth \ rate) = 0.50 + (0.50 \times growth \ rate)$

$0.70 = (15 \times growth \ rate) \\ \\ Growth \ rate = \dfrac{0.70}{15.50} \\ \\ Growth \ rate = 0.04516 \\ \\ Growth \ rate \simeq 4.52\% \\ \\$

2. The value of the stock

Calculate the earnings at the end of 5 years:

$Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend \ payout \ ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%} \\ \\ = \$1.42857$

$Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$2.51763$

Terminal value year 5 = $\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}$

$=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+0.04516)}{8\%-0.04516}$

=$75.526

Discount all potential future cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

$\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 +Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no\ of\ years} }$

$+ \dfrac{Terminal\ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years}} \Bigg)$

$\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$75.526}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg )$

$\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$75.526}{1.4693} \bigg)$

=$ 54.1945

As a result, the analysts value the stock at $54.20, which is below their own estimates.

3. The value of the stock

Calculate the earnings at the end of 5 years:

$Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend payout ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%}\\ \\ = \$1.42857$

$Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5 = \$2.51763 \\ \\$

Terminal value year 5 = $\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)\times dividend \ payout \ ratio}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}$

$=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+ 7 \%) \times 20\%}{8\%-7\%}$

=$53.8773

Discount all potential cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

$\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 + Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no \ of\ years} }+ \dfrac{Terminal \ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years }} \bigg)$

$\implies \bigg( \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$53.8773}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg)$

$\implies \bigg (\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$53.8773}{1.4693} \bigg)$

=$39.460

As a result, the price is $39.460, and the other strategy would raise the value of the shareholders. Not this one, since paying a 100% dividend would result in a price of $54.20, which is higher than the current price.

Notice that the third question depicts the situation after 5 years, but the final decision will be the same since we are discounting in current terms. If compounding is used, the future value over 5 years is just the same as the first choice, which is the better option.

The presumption in the second portion is that after 5 years, the steady growth rate would be the same as measured in the first part (1).

8 0

3 years ago