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Mekhanik [1.2K]
3 years ago
15

2(x + 5) = 3x + 13y – 4= 6 – 2y3(n + 2) = 9(6 – n)

Mathematics
1 answer:
dezoksy [38]3 years ago
6 0
42 I think I’m not really sure
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I need help please no links I will report
stellarik [79]

Answer: $1.45

Step-by-step explanation:

We start by subtracting the change from how much she payed for.

d = dollars | g = goldfish

16d - 0.05d = 15.95d

Then we divide by the goldfish

\frac{15.95d}{11g} = 1.45d

Our answer is 1.45!

<u>Also, warning, the people who go into the comments saying to download something from bitly, do not do it. They are viruses and will not get the answer, please only report their answer and ignore them.</u>

7 0
2 years ago
g A fair coin is tossed 20 times. The number of heads observed is the count X of successes. Give the distribution of X . Choose
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

We assume that we have a fair coin that is p(Head)=p(Tails)=0.5

For this case we define the random variable X as "number of heads observed in 20 times". The distribution for X is given by:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.5)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

We assume that we have a fair coin that is p(Head)=p(Tails)=0.5

For this case we define the random variable X as "number of heads observed in 20 times". The distribution for X is given by:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.5)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

3 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%7B29-12%5Csqrt%7B5%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="\sqrt{29-12\sqrt{5}" alt="\sqrt{29-12\s
SSSSS [86.1K]

\sqrt{29 \:  -  \: 12 \sqrt{5} }

  • Factor the indicated expression:

\sqrt{(3 \:  -  \: 2 \sqrt{5}) ^{2}  }

  • Simplified the index the root and also the exponent using the number 2.

\boxed{ \bold{2 \sqrt{5}  \:  -  \: 3}}

<h3><em><u>MissSpanish</u></em> </h3>
6 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
You are a real estate agent with ABC Real Estate company. You help sell a home for $155,000. The total commission is 6.5%. Your
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

$3,929.25.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, calculate the total commission.  That's found by multiplying the selling price ($155,000) by 0.065.  The result:  The total commission is $10,075.

Your company receives 60% of that.  So we multiply $10,075 by 0.60, obtaining $6,045.

Your share of the commission is 65% of that, so we multiply $6,045 by 0.65:

0.65($6,045) = $3,929.25.

Your personal share of the commission is thus $3,929.25.

4 0
3 years ago
Winnie needs to spend $120 on two kinds of fancy cakes:
Ainat [17]

Answer:

Winnie needs to buy 6 slices of Coffee cake.

Step-by-step explanation:

12 * 5= $60 (chocolate cake)

120 - 60= 60

since we know the coffee cake costs $10(per slice) we do:

60/ $10= 6 slices of coffee cake.

3 0
3 years ago
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