Prior to the closing, one final inspection should take place. This is also known as the final walk through.
<h3>What is walk through inspection?</h3>
Just prior to closing, a walk-through inspection is performed to make sure the property is still in good shape, there hasn't been any additional damage, and all of the fixtures included in the sale are still there.
A buyer and their real estate agent will tour the house together during the walkthrough. They'll make sure there isn't any fresh damage, that all of the house's systems and appliances that are included in the sale are still in good functioning order, and that the house is clean.
<h3>What is purpose of walk-through?</h3>
The objectives of a walk-through are as follows: By involving stakeholders from both inside and outside the software discipline, you can gather information about the subject of the document. Describe and explain the document's contents. Obtain agreement on the document as a whole.
To know more about walk-through visit:
brainly.com/question/15212545
#SPJ4
Answer:
January $153,825
February $248,600
March $301,650
Explanation:
Computation for cash collections from customers for each month:
January February March
January: ($205,100 x 75%=$153,825) ($205,100 x 25%=$51,275) $0
February: $0 ($263,100 x 75%= $197,325) ($263,100 x 25%=$65,775)
March: $0 $0 ($314,500 x 75%=$235,875)
TOTAL $153,825 $248,600 $301,650
Therefore cash collections from customers for each month is :
January $153,825
February $248,600
March $301,650
Answer:B.40.9%
Explanation:
If $675 spend on mortgage and his monthly income is $1650
So the percentage will be:
$675 / $1650 × 100
= 0.409 ×100
= 40.9%
It can mean that the bank is running low on liquidity of
cash. In the banks are required to keep a minimum of liquidity to be able to
give loans and keep the cash flow. In case the bank is running low on liquidity
the customer should inform the central bank and the central bank should fine
the bank for not maintaining the liquidity.
Answer:
a.
Explanation:
Based on all the answers that were provided the statement that is correct is that the bid price in a hostile takeover is generally above the price before the takeover attempt is announced, because otherwise there would be no incentive for the stockholders to sell to the hostile bidder and the takeover attempt would probably fail. Which pretty much explains itself, except for that a hostile takeover is when a person or another business tries to purchase a business by going directly to the shareholders themselves.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.