There are 9 marbles in the bag. We pick 2 without replacement and get a probability of 1/6.
Each draw of a marble has a probability associated with it. Multiplying these gives 1/6 so let us assume the probabilities are (1/3) and (1/2).
In order for the first draw to have a probability of 1/3 we need to draw a color that has (1/3)(9)=3 marbles. So let's say there are 3 red marbles. The P(a red marble is drawn) = 1/3.
Now that a marble has been drawn there are 8 marbles left. In order for the second draw to have a probability of 1/2 we must draw a color that has (1/2)(8) = 4 marbles. So let's say there are 4 blue marbles out of the 8.
Since there are 9 marbles to start and we have 3 red marbles and 4 blue marbles, the remaining 2 marbles must be a different color. Let us say they are green.
The problem is: There are 3 red marbles, 4 blue marbles and 2 green marbles in a jar. A marble is picked at random, it's color is noted and the marble is not replaced. A second marble is drawn at random and its color noted. What is the probability that the first marble is red and the second blue?
Answer:
x is less than or equal to 16
Step-by-step explanation:
- 2 x x + 4 < 20
Isolate the variable
divide 2 from 2 = 0
x + 4 < 20
x is less than or equal to 16
Answer:
<h2>X = 59°</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
To find Angle X we use sine
sin∅ = opposite/ hypotenuse
From the question
WY is the opposite
WX is the hypotenuse
So we have
sin X = WY/ WX
sin X = 6/7
X = sin-¹ 6/7
X = 58.99
X = 59° to the nearest tenth
Hope this helps you
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
The slope is 0 as there is no x variable within the equation.
recall y=mx+c where m is the slope. y=3 so we are only given the y intercept.
to graph this simply draw a horizontl line that crosses (0,3).
