Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
Answer:
Im not a 100% sure but my best guess would be the 3rd equation:
f(x) = (x - 1) (x + 3)
Please let me know if I was wrong, but i hope this helped you!
Hi!
Remember that an x-intercept is a point in which the line touches the x-axis (the horizontal line). And, the y-intercept is a point in which the line touches the y-axis (the vertical/up and down line)
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For A)
The coordinate of the y-intercept is (0,1)
The coordinate of the x-intercept is (3,0)
For B)
The coordinate of the y-intercept is (0,0)
The coordinate of the x-intercept is (0,0) !
*both the x and y axis meet at the origin. So, a line that goes through the origin (0,0) is intersecting with BOTH the x and y-axis.
Hope I helped! Comment if you have any questions or concerns.
-Gabby5792
Answer:
66
Step-by-step explanation:
